In humans, the __________ determine(s) the sex of the sex of the offspring.

a. father

b. autosomes

c. ratio of older brothers to sister

d. mother

Answer: a

Gregor Mendel used pea plants to study

a. gamete formation.

b. flowering.

c. cross-pollination.

d. the inheritance of traits.

Answer: d

Two gametes come together in the process of fertilization to form a ______________.

Answer: zygote

Gregor Mendel concluded that traits are 

a. not inherited by offspring.

b. determined by recessive factors only.

c. determined by dominant factors only.

d. inherited through the passing of factors from parents to offspring.

Answer: d

If an organism's haploid number is 36, its diploid number is

a. 18

b. 24

c. 72

d. 12

Answer: c

How many viable ova (eggs) result from meiosis in a female?

a. 2

b. 4

c. 3

d. 1

Answer: d

Which of the following is NOT a type of genetic disorder?

a. autosomal 

b. disjunction

c. trisomy

d. sex-linked

Answer: b

An organism with a dominant allele for a particular form of a simple-dominance trait will _________ exhibit that trait.

a. always

b. rarely

c. never

d. sometimes

Answer: a

The trait tat physically shows up to an organism is its

a. genotype.

b. phenotype.

c. prototype.

d. allele.

Answer: b

What percentage of human sperm cells carry an X chromosome?

a. 0%

b. 25%

c. 100%

d. 50%

Answer: d

A specialized cell found in reproductive organs that is able to divide by meiosis is called a(n)

a. germ cell.

b. gamete.

c. Barr body.

d. ovum

Answer: a

Which of the following statements is true?

a. Females cannot have hemophilia.

b. A sex-linked allele cannot be dominant.

c. A colorblind girl's father must be colorblind.

d. A colorblind boy's father must be colorblind.

Answer: c

When Mendel allowed the tall F1 pea plants (Tt) to self-pollinate,

a. some of the offspring were short.

b. all of the offspring were short.

c. all of the offspring were tall.

d. the offspring were of medium height.

Answer: a

Roan cattle show codominance for the color of their hair. There are alleles for red hair and white hair. What would you expect a heterozygous roan bull to look like if the trait showed incomplete dominance instead? It would probably be

a. pink.

b. white.

c. spotted.

d. red.

Answer: a

How many different allele combinations would be found in the gametes produces by pea plant whose genotype was TtRr?

a. 8

b. 4

c. 2

d. 16

Answer: b

Which of the following is NOT a disorder that has something to do with sex chromosomes?

a. Klinefelter's syndrome

b. Muscular dystrophy

c. Turner's syndrome

d. sickle cell anemia

Answer: d

Offspring that result from crosses between parents who are pure-breeds for different traits are called

a. hybrids

b. true-breeds

c. mutants

d. thoroughbreds

Answer: a

Which of the following can be observed in a karyotype?

a, genes

b. an extra chromosome

c. alleles

d. a change in DNA base

Answer: b

In the P generation, a tall plant was crossed with a short plant. Short plants reappeared in the F2 generation because

a. the allele for shortness becomes dominant in the F2 generation.

b. the alleles for both heights segregated when the F1 plants made gametes.

c. the allele for shortness becomes more common in the F2 generation.

d. the alleles for tallness begin to disappear in the F2 generation.

Answer: b

Which of the following combinations of sex chromosomes represents a female?

a. XXY

b. XXXY

c. X

d. XY

Answer: c

Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because

a. the allele for colorblindness is recessive a and located on the X chromosome.

b. males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness.

c. the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome.

d. fathers pass the allele for colorblindness to their sons only.

Answer: a

A Punnett square shows all of the following EXCEPT

a. the alleles in the gametes of each parent.

b. the actual results of a genetic cross.

c. all possible results of a genetic cross.

d. the genotypes of the offspring.

Answer: b

You perform a test-cross when you do not know an organism's

a. dominant trait.

b. phenotype.

c. recessive trait.

d. genotype.

Answer: d

Which of the following genotypes result in the same phenotype?

a. RR and WW

b. RR and RW

c. BB and Bb

d. Aa and aa

Answer: c

A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (tt). Two of the offspring from this cross are then crossed. About what percentage of the offspring from the F2 generation will be tall?

a. 75%

b. 25%

c. 50%

d. 100%

Answer: a

The failure of chromosomes to separate during mitosis is called

a. crossover

b. polygenic inheritance

c. nondisjunction

d. disjunction

Answer: c

Which of the following is TRUE of the process of meiosis?

a. Four haploid cells result.

b. Four autosomes result.

c. Two diploid cells result.

d. Four diploid cells result.

Answer: a

Gregor Mendel's principles of genetics apply to

a. pea plants only

b. plants only

c. animals only

d. all organisms

Answer: d

What principles states that during gamete formation genes for different traits separate without influencing each other's inheritance?

a. principle of independent assortment

b. principle of probabilities

c. principle of dominance

d. principle of segregation

Answer: a

Human blood can be either A, B, AB, or O, depending on the pairing of genes. This type of inheritance is known as

a. tetronomy.

b. multiple alleles.

c. polygenic inheritance.

d. incomplete dominance

Answer: d

If a pea plant's alleles for height are tt, what is true of its parents?

a. Both parents contributes a dominant allele.

b. Both parents were tall.

c. Both parents were short.

d. Both parents contributed a recessive allele.

Answer: d

How many chromosomes are shown in a normal karyotype?

a. 2

b. 46

c. 44

d. 23

Answer: b

Most sex-linked genes are located on

a. the autosomes.

b. the X chromosome only.

c. both the X and Y chromosomes.

d. the Y chromosome only.

Answer: b

Which of the following form(s) a Barr body?

a. one of the X chromosomes in a female cell

b. one of the Y chromosomes in a male cell

c. one of the X chromosomes in a male cell

d. both of the X chromosomes in a female cell

Answer: a

Variations in human height is an example of

a. polygenic traits

b. multiple alleles

c. codominance

d. incomplete dominance

Answer: a

Which of the following theories best explains the mass extinction of the dinosaurs?

A - Descent with modification

B - Gradualism

C - Catastrophism

D - Uniformism

E - Adaptive radiation

Answer: C - Catastrophism

On the Hawaiian Islands, there are several species that are similar and resemble a common ancestor. Each island has a slightly different ecosystem. Which of the following best explains how these different species came to be?

A - Acquired characteristics

B - Adaptive radiation

C - Extinction

D - Status

E - Punctuated equilibrium

Answer: B - Adaptive radiation

The life that the Earth is constantly changing and. therefore. life on Earth is continually evolving is.

A - Gradualism

B - Catastrophism

C - Mass Extinction

D - Punctuated equilibrium

E - Status

Answer: A - Gradualism

What organelles in eukaryotic cells are thought to have originated from prokaryotic cells?

A - Mitochondria and ribosomes

B - Nucleus and centrioles

C - Plastids and mitochondria

D - Plastids and lysosomes

E - Vacuole and plastids

Answer: C - Plastids and mitochondria

What term best describes change over time?

A - Evolution

B - Uniformism

C - Status

D - Extinction

E - Geology

Answer: A - Evolution

Scientists have found fossils that show a sudden appearance of a new organism after decades of no change. Which form of evolutionary change best explains this?

A - Gradualism

B - Descent with modification

C - Uniformism

D - Adaptive radiation

E - Punctuated equilibrium

Answer: E - Punctuated equilibrium

Which of the following best describes an endosymbiont?

A - A cell that lives within another cell

B - A cell capable of aerobic respiration

C - The host cell that allows other cells to live in it

D - A protobiont

E - A cell capable of photosynthesis

Answer: A - A cell that lives within another cell 

The theory of endosymbiosis best explains.

A - How eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells are very similar

B - How prokaryotic cells evolved from protobionts

C - Why eukaryotic cells have a nucleus

D - How all eukaryotic cells contain chloroplasts

E - How eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells

Answer: E - How eukaryotic cells evolved from prokaryotic cells

Cells that are simple and contain no membrane bound organelles are called.

A - Eukaryotic

B - Prokaryotic

C - Animal cells

D - Plant cells

E - Protobionts

Answer: B - Prokaryotic

Which of the following is NOT evidence for the endosymbiosis theory?

A - Mitochondria and chloroplasts have DNA that is similar to that found in the nucleus 

B - Mitochondria and chloroplasts contain enzymes similar to those in prokaryotic membranes

C - Mitochondria and chloroplasts are able to replicate their own DNA

D - Mitochondria and chloroplasts replicate in a way similar to some prokaryotic cells

E - Mitochondria and chloroplasts have similar antibiotic resistance as prokaryotic cells

Answer: A - Mitochondria and chloroplasts have DNA that is similar to that found in the nucleus

The time period in Earth's history that saw the greatest increase in both the number and diversity of species is the.

A - Precambrian

B - Cambrian period

C - Mesozoic era

D - Cenozoic era

Answer: B - Cambrian period

What method is used to determine the specific age of a rock or fossil?

A - Strata analysis

B - Relative dating

C - Geo-transformation

D - Radioactive dating

Answer: D - Radioactive dating

The Archean and Proterozoic eons are regrouped together as.

A - Precambrian

B - Phanerozoic

C - Paleozoic

D - Cambrian

Answer: A - Precambrian

What type of event separates the Paleozoic, Mesozoic, and Cenozoic eras from one another in the Phanerozoic eon?

A - The loss of single-celled organisms

B - The transition of plants from water to land

C - The transition of animals from water to land

D - The mass extinction of organisms

Answer: D - The mass extinction of organisms

What scientist is credited with the idea that early life on Earth formed through series of reactions that made simple compounds gradually more complex?

A - Darwin

B - Oparin

C - Miller

D - Urey

E - Mendel

Answer: B - Oparin

Which answer choice correctly orders the three major eons of Earth's history, from the oldest to the most recent?

A - Phanerozoic, Archean, Proterozoic

B - Cenozoic, Paleozoic, Mesozoic

C - Triassic, Jurrasic, Cretaceous

D - Archean, Proterozoic, Phanerozoic

Answer: D - Archean, Proterozoic, Phanerozoic

Small, non-living droplets that can regulate their internal environments are best known as _________.

A - Antibiotics

B - Eukaryotic cells

C - Protobionts

D - Prokaryotic cells

E - Viruses

Answer: C - Protobiants

Scientists agree that Earth is about how old?

A - Less than 100,000 million wears old

B - Less than 10,000 million years old

C - Over 4 billion years old

D - Over 10 billion years old

E - There is no way to know

Answer: C - Over 4 billion years old

Miller and Urey used all of the following substances to stimulate Earth's early atmosphere EXCEPT _________.

A - Water vapor

B - Oxygen

C - Hydrogen

D - Methane

E - Ammonia

Answer: B - Oxygen

Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to

Answer: mitochondria

During the Calvin Cycle, molecules of__________ supply the carbon component of carbohydrates.

Answer: CO2

The protein hormone that enables cells to absorb glucose is called _____________. If the body does not produce sufficient levels of this hormone, it brings on a disease known as ______________.

Answer: insulin; diabetes

Which pathway represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis?

a. O2--> ADP--> Calvin cycle

b. Photosystem I--> Calvin cycle--> NADP+

c. H2O--> NADP+--> Calvin cycle

d. H2O--> Photosystem I--> Photosystem II

Answer: c

Cells keep only a small amount of ____________ on hand and regenerate (or "recharge") it as needed by using carbohydrates.

Answer: ATP

Muscles are supplied with a storage form of glucose called __________.

Answer: glycogen

The pigment chlorophyll is located in the membranes of the thin, stacked discs (NOT the WHOLE stack itself) called _____________.

Answer: thylakoids

The energy needed to win a 1-minute footrace is produced mostly by

a. using up stores of ATP.

b. breaking down fats.

c. cellular respiration.

d. lactic acid fermentation.

Answer: d

Which of the following foods is NOT made, in part, by the process of fermentation?

a. noodles

b. cheese

c. wine

d. bread

e. yogurt

Answer: a

In eukaryotes, ETC occurs in the

a. inner mitochondrial membrane.

b. cell membrane.

c. nucleus.

d. cytoplasm.

Answer: a

The conversion of pyruvic acid requires

a. ATP

b. alcohol

c. oxygen

d. NADH

Answer: d

Which of the following passes high energy electrons into the ETC?

a. NADH and ATP

b. pyruvic acid

c. NADH anf FADH2

d. ATP and NADPH

Answer: c

What is the term used for the energy pathway in which glucose is degraded to carbon dioxide and water?

a. cellular respiration

b. Krebs cycle

c. glycolysis

d. fermentation

Answer: a

Which of the following is NOT a factor in endurance?

a. tolerance

b. oxygen intake efficiency

c. carbon dioxide output rate

d. glycogen levels

Answer: c

Which of the following is a product of the light-dependent reactions?

a. carbon dioxide gas

b. ATP

c. NADH

d. all of the above

Answer: b

Where are photosystems I and II found?

a. in the thylakoid membrane

b. in the Calvin cycle

c. in the stroma

d. in the cell membrane

Answer: a

A plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment. The leaves of this plant appear to be reddish-yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are NOT being absorbed by this pigment?

a. blue, green, and red

b. red and yellow

c. green and yellow

d. blue and violet

Answer: b

If carbon dioxide is removed from a plant's environment, what would you expect to happen to the plant's production of high-energy sugars?

a. Fewer sugars will be produced.

b. Carbon dioxide does not affect the production of high-energy sugars in plants.

c. The same number of sugars will be produced but without carbon dioxide.

d. More sugars will be produced.

Answer: a

The Krebs cycle starts with

a. lactic acid and yields carbon dioxide.

b. glucose and yields lactic acid.

c. glucose and yields 32-34 ATPs.

d. pyretic acid and yields carbon dioxide.

Answer: d

Plants exchange gases with the atmosphere

a. through the top of their leaves.

b. through their roots.

c. through their stems.

d. through the bottom of their leaves.

Answer: d

What are the products of the light-dependent reactions?

a. ATP, NADPH, and oxygen gas

b. oxygen gas and glucose

c. ATP, carbon dioxide gas, and NADPH

d. carbon dioxide gas, oxygen gas, and NADPH

Answer: c

What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle?

a. synthesize simple sugars from CO2

b. split water and release O2

c. use NADPH to release CO2.

d. use ATP to release CO2.

Answer: a

The function of both alcoholic fermentation and lactic acid fermentation is to convert

a. FADH2 to FAD+

b. NADH to NAD+

c. FAD+ to FADH2

d. NAD+ to NADH

Answer: b

The Krebs cycle does not occur if

a. fermentation occurs.

b. carbon dioxide is present.

c. oxygen is present.

d. glycolysis occurs.

Answer: a

Which of the following is NOT a true statement about ATP? 

a. ATP provides energy for the mechanical functions of cells.

b. Used ATP is discarded by the cell as waste.

c. ATP has three phosphate groups.

d. ADP forms when ATP releases energy.

Answer: b

How are cellular respiration and photosynthesis almost opposite processes?

a. Photosynthesis releases energy, and cellular respiration stores energy.

b. Photosynthesis puts water into the atmosphere; cellular respiration gets it back

c. Photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere; cellular respiration puts it back

d. all of the above

Answer: c

Organisms that cannot make their own food and thus obtain energy from the foods they eat are called

a. thylakoids

b. autotrophs

c. heterotrophs

d. plants

Answer: c

Which of the following is NOT true?

a. NADH is produced only in the mitochondria

b. ATP is produced in the cytosol, mitochondria, and chloroplasts.

c. FADH2 is produced only in the mitochondria

d. Lactic acid is produced only in the cytosol.

Answer: a

Cellular respiration uses one molecule of glucose to produce

a. 18 ATP molecules

b. 32 ATP molecules

c. 2 ATP molecules

d. 36 ATP molecules

Answer: d

In the absence of oxygen, yeast cells can obtain energy by fermentation, resulting in the production of ATP along with

a. CO2 and lactic acid.

b. CO2 and ethyl alcohol.

c. pyruvic acid and oxygen.

d. NADH and pyruvic acid.

Answer: b

Unlike photosynthesis, cellular respiration occurs in

a. all but plant cells.

b. animal cells only.

c. all eukaryotic cells.

d. plant cells only.

Answer: c

One cause of muscle soreness is

a. glycolysis.

b. fermentation.

c. the Krebs cycle.

d. CO2 build-up

Answer: b

A 1,200 Calorie 4-course dinner has enough energy to raise _______ grams of water 1 degree Celsius.

a. 1,200

b. 120,000

c. 1,200,000

d, 12

Answer: c

NOT including glycolysis, the process of fermentation results in ________ ATPs.

a. 32

b. 4

c. 2

d. 0

Answer: d

Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent?

a. Krebs cycle

b. glycolysis

c. ETC

d. cellular respiration

Answer: b

Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin Cycle?

a. ATP and NADPH

b. ADP and NADP+

c. CO2 and H2O

d. ATP and NADH

Answer: a

Which of the following is NOT a part of the ATP molecule?

a. chlorophyll

b. ribose

c. phosphate

d. adenine

Answer: a

Plants that produce a waxy coating on their leaves probably live in

a. desert climates

b. wet climates

c. shady areas

d. cold climates

Answer: a

Which region of the visible spectrum is NOT absorbed by chlorophyll?

a. blue

b. red

c. violet

d. green

Answer: d

Starting with a single pyruvic acid, how many of the following are produced in Krebs cycle?

a. 1 ATP, 1 CO2, 4 NADH, and 1 FADH2

b. 2 ATP, 3 CO2, 4 NADH, and 1 FADH2

c. 36 ATP, 6 CO2, 8 NADH, and 2 FADH2

d. 2 ATP, 6 CO2, 8 NADH, and 2 FADH2

Answer: b

After training for months, you are finally running your first marathon. After a few miles, you notice you are clipping along at a nice pace, your breathing is at a steady rhythm and you feel ready to go the distance. Your muscle cells are definitely in

a. anaerobic respiration

b. denial

c. aerobic respiration

d. fermentation

Answer: c

The starting molecule for glycolysis is

a. ADP

b. ATP

c. glucose

d. pyruvic acid

Answer: c

Which of these processes takes place in the cytosol of a cell?

a. Calvin cycle

b. Krebs cycle

c. fermentation

d. all of the above

e. none of the above

Answer: c

The major product of the ETC is

a. ATP.

b. lactic acid.

c. alcohol.

Answer: a

Plants gather the sun's energy with light-absorbing molecules called

a. glucose

b. chloroplasts

c. pigments

d. thylakoids

Answer: c

Cellular respiration is called an aerobic process because it requires

a. exercise

b. oxygen

c. carbon dioxide

d. glucose

Answer: b

When you exercise, all of the following are sources of energy EXCEPT

a. fermentation

b. Calvin Cycle

c. stored ATP

d. cellular respiration

Answer: b

The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?

a. absorbing sugar byproducts into the mitochondrion

b. glycolysis

c. the Krebs cycle

d. accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chain

Answer: d

Where do the light dependent reactions take place?

a. in the cytosol

b. in the mitochondria

c. in the grana

d. in the stroma

Answer: c

Where does most of the energy stored in glucose go during cellular respiration?

a. heat

b. production of ATP

c. fermentation

d. electron transport chain

Answer: a

The "pinching in" of the cytoplasm in the late stages of mitosis is called ______________.

Answer: cytokinesis

The entire genetic library for an organism is called its _____________.

Answer: genome

Together, the G1 phase, S phase, and G2 phase are called ______________.

Answer: interphase

The division of a prokaryote is known as _______________.

Answer: binary fission

Mainly involved in the G2 phase, proteins called ___________ regulate the timing of the cell cycle in eukaryotic cells.

Answer: cyclins

The spreading of cancerous cells throughout the body where they set up secondary tumors is called _____________.

Answer: metastasis

The major bioethical issue surrounding stem cell research is that it currently relies heavily on the _____________ industry.

Answer: abortion

Cells in a multicellular organism that have yet to specialize into a specific type of cell are called ________________.

Answer: stem cells

Cells grown in a petri dish tend to divide until they form a thin layer covering the bottom of the dish. If cells are removed from the middle of the dish, the cells bordering the open space will begin dividing until the have filled the empty space. What does this experiment show?

a. Cell division is a completely random process.

b. Once cells divide, they can never divide again.

c. The controls on cell growth and division can be turned on and off.

d. There is only a limited amount of DNA available to a given group of cells.

Answer: c

The rate at which wastes are produced by a cell partially depends on the cell's

a. ratio of surface area to volume.

b. volume.

c. type of membrane.

d. surface area.

Answer: b

During early development, all cells in the embryo of a multicellular organism are identical. Later on in development, the cells will become specialized through a process called

a. apoptosis

b. cytokinesis

c. differentiation

d. interphase

Answer: c

In mitosis, the sister chromatids of chromosomes will ultimately split apart, and ______________ will begin to move toward opposite poles of the cell.

a. cyclins

b. chromosomes 

c. centrioles

d. chromatids

Answer: b

A multicellular organism begins life as a single cell- a fertilized egg with a complete set of chromosomes. The first cell of life divides to become two cells, then four cells, eight cells, and so on. Which of the following statements best describes what happens during this process?

a. Chromosomes are duplicated before cell division so that each daughter cell has a complete set.

b. Chromosomes are divided evenly during cell division so that each new daughter cell has an equal share of the original set.

c. Chromosomes are stored in the original cell to direct the division of all daughter cells which do not have their own chromosomes.

d. Chromosomes are randomly distributed during cell division so that some new cells have partial sets while others have complete sets.

Answer: a

If the surface area of a cell that is shaped like a cube increases 100 times, its volume increases about

a. 5 times

b. 10 times

c. 100 times

d. 1000 times

Answer: d

What is the name for the external regulators that prompt a cell to enter S-phase?

a. replicating agents

b. histones

c. centrosomes

d. growth factors

Answer: d

Where do microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells?

a. centromere

b. centrosome

c. centriole

d. chromatid

e. kinetochore

Answer: b

Which of the following statements is NOT true?

a. Cancer cells damage surrounding tissues and organs.

b. Cancer is the mass production of an organism's own body cells.

c. There is currently no way to kill cancer cells.

d. Cancer cells can over-produce harmful wastes into the body.

Answer: c

Compared with small cells, large cells have more trouble

a. dividing. 

b. producing daughter cells.

c. moving nutrients in and waste products out.

d. making copies of their DNA.

Answer: c

Secondary tumors may show up in various parts of the body if the cancer is

a. oncogenic

b. benign

c. terminal

d. malignant

Answer: d

As a cell becomes larger, its

a. volume increases faster than its surface area.

b. surface area increases faster than its volume.

c. volume increases, but its surface area stays the same.

d. surface area decreases, but its volume increases.

Answer: a

When during the cell cycle are chromosomes visible?

a. only during interphase

b. only when they are being replicated

c. only during mitosis

d. only during the G1 phase

e. all of the above

Answer: c

Which event occurs during interphase?

a. centrosomes replicate

b. centrioles appear

c. spindle fibers begin to form

d. centromeres divide

Answer: a

The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells is called

a. cell division.

b. metaphase.

c. interphase.

d. mitosis.

Answer: a

The standard number of chromosomes in a human cell is

a. 4

b. 8

c. 23

d. 46

e. 92

Answer: d

In which phase of mitosis is the number of chromosomes doubled in a cell?

a. S-phase

b. prophase

c. anaphase

d. telophase

Answer: c

What is one role of the spindle during mitosis?

a. It helps separate the chromosomes.

b. It breaks down the nuclear membrane.

c. It pinches in the cytoplasm.

d. It divides the cell in half.

Answer: a

Because a carrot has 18 chromosomes and a potato has 48 chromosomes, we know

a. potato cells take longer to divide than carrot cells do.

b. potatoes are more complex than carrots.

c. potatoes will have a cell plate; carrots will not.

d. nothing more. The number of chromosomes means little.

Answer: d

Which of the following is NOT a way that cell division solves the problems of cell growth?

a. Cell division provides each daughter cell with its own copy of DNA.

b. Cell division increases the mass of the original cell.

c. Cell division increases the surface area of the original cell.

d. Cell division reduces the original cell's total volume.

Answer: b

Proteins that regulate the cell cycle based on events inside the cell are called

a. replicators

b. growth factors 

c. oncogenes

d. cyclins

Answer: d

Cancer is a disorder in which some cells have lost the ability to control their

a. size

b. spindle fibers

c. growth rate

d. surface area

Answer: c

Which of the following is NOT a method of treatment for a cancer patient?

a. radiation therapy

b. surgery

c. chemotherapy

d. antibiotics

Answer: d

Which pair is correct?

a. G1 phase, DNA replication

b. G2 phase, preparation for mitosis

c. S phase, cell division

d. M phase, cell growth

Answer: b

Cancer most often spreads through the ____________ system.

a. endocine

b. lymphatic 

c. nervous

d. skeletal

Answer: b

During normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell having four chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each containing ___________ chromosomes.

a. two

b. four

c. eight

d. sixteen

Answer: b

If there are 20 chromatids in a cell at metaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis?

a. 10

b. 20

c. 30

d. 40

e. 80

Answer: a

Which of the following happens when a cell divides?

a. The cell's volume increases.

b. It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients.

c. The cell has DNA overload.

d. Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell's DNA.

Answer: d

Which of the following is a factor that can stop normal cells from growing?

a. contact with other cells

b. growth factors

c. a cut in the skin

d. adding cyclins to the cytoplasm of a cell

Answer: a

Genes that have mutated into a code that will cause a cell to become cancerous are called

a. oncogenes

b. mutagens

c. carcinogens

d. darth genes

Answer: a

Which of the following is NOT a role of the spindle fibers?

a. arranges chromosomes along the metaphase plate

b. begins the process of cytokinesis in the middle of the cell

c. overlapping ends "push" against each other to stretch cell apart

d. guides single-copy chromosomes toward the centrosomes

Answer: b

Which of the following tissues are NOT places where stem cells are found?

a. embryo

b. spinal cord

c. adult bone marrow

d. umbilical cord

Answer: b

The two main stages of cell division are called

a. mitosis and interphase

b. synthesis and interphase

c. the M phase and the S phase

d. mitosis and cytokinesis

Answer: d

The human body system that includes these glands, thyroid, adrenals, and pancreas:

A) Digestive

B) Endocrine

C) Reproductive

D) Excretory

Answer: B

These two body systems work together to allow a person to move, talk, and run.

A) Integumentary & Lymphatic

B) Skeletal & Muscular

C) Endocrine & Reproductive

D) Digestive & Excretory

Answer: B

The primary function of this system is to help you fight pathogens (germs).

A) Lymphatic

B) Nervous

C) Excretory

D) Endocrine

Answer: A

The primary function of this system is to be a communication and response system for the body.

A) Nervous

B) Excretory

C) Lymphatic

D) Endocrine

Answer: A

The primary function of this system is to break down food into usable form and to remove waste products.

A) Digestive

B) Skeletal

C) Muscular

D) Respiratory

Answer: A

Water, urea, and other wastes are eliminated in a fluid called _____________.

A) carbon dioxide

B) perspiration

C) urine

D) protein

Answer: C

The central nervous system includes:

A) Nerves

B) Brain & Spinal Cord

C) Brain

D) Spinal Cord

Answer: B

The primary function of the system is to support and protect the body.

A) Digestive

B) Skeletal

C) Respiratory

D) Muscular

Answer: B

Arteries, Veins, and capillaries are the _____________ in the circulatory system.

A) tissues

B) organs

C) vessels

D) cells

Answer: B

The main organ in the respiratory system is the _____________.

A) Lung

B) Trachea

C) Diaphragm

D) Bronchi

Answer: A

Skin helps the body maintain a steady _____________ through perspiration and enlarging of blood vessels.

A) Temperature

B) Heart beat

C) Pace

D) Tan

Answer: A

Walking, running, and carrying a book involve using _____________ type of muscles.

A) voluntary

B) involuntary

C) cardiac

D) striated

Answer: A

Cardiac muscle tissue can be found in your _____________.

A) Heart

B) Brain

C) Stomach

D) Liver

Answer: A

Breathing, heart beating, and food digesting are examples of activities using _____________ type of muscles.

A) voluntary

B) cardiac

C) involuntary

D) striated

Answer: B

One important function of bones is to produce _____________.

A) ligaments

B) tendons

C) blood cells

D) cartilage

Answer: C

A group of similar cells performing the same function is a(n) _____________.

A) system

B) organ

C) tissue

D) cell

Answer: C

Skin, ears, and kidneys are examples of _____________.

A) tissues

B) organ systems

C) organs

D) cells

Answer: C

The _____________ system removes waste products from the body.

A) Integumentary

B) Digestive

C) All of these

D) Excretory

Answer: C

The four levels of organization in a multicellular organization in a multicellular organism are ____________, _____________, _______________, and organ systems.

Answer: cells; tissue; organs

A solution which draws water out of a cell is said to be ____________.

Answer: hypertonic

All of the fluid between the cell membrane and the nucleus (but NOT including the organelles) is called the ____________.

Answer: cytosol

By definition, prokaryotes lack a __________ in their cells.

Answer: nucleus

In a(n) ____________ solution, concentrations of solutes are the same on both sides (i.e., equilibrium).

Answer: isotonic

Unlike the cell membrane, the cell wall is 

a. found in all organisms

b. composed of a lipid bilayer

c. selectively permeable

d. a rigid structure

Answer: d

Which means of particle transport is shown above?

a. phagocytosis

b. exocytosis

c. facilitated diffusion

d. osmosis

Answer: a

Large molecules such as glucose that cannot cross the lipid bilayer but can still move across the membrane into a low concentration gradient by means of ___________ diffusion.

Answer: facilitated

The movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane is called _____________.

Answer: osmosis

The active transport of materials out of a cell is known as

a. exocytosis

b. endocytosis

c. facilitated diffusion

d. both B and C

Answer: a

The cell membrane contains channels and pumps that help move materials from one side to the other. What are these channels and pumps made of?

a. carbohydrates

b. lipids

c. proteins

d. bilipids

Answer: c

Ribosomes are found in all of the following places EXCEPT the

a. nucleolus

b. ER

c. Golgi apparatus

d. cytoplasm

Answer: c

Which structure contains the other?

a. nucleus; cytoplasm

b. nucleus; genetic material

c. cell membrane; cell wall

d. prokaryote; chloroplasts

Answer: b

The cell theory applies to

a. bacteria

b. plants and animals

c. multicellular organisms

d. all of the above

Answer: d

The pair of organelles that aid in cell division are called

a. microtubules and are only found in eukaryotes

b. microtubules and are only found in prokaryotes

c. centrioles and are only found in plant cells

d. centrioles and are only found in animal cells

Answer: d

Prokaryotes usually contain

a. a nucleus

b. genetic material

c. specialized organelles

d. all of the above

Answer: b

A specialized organ such as a heart will only be found in which type of organism?

a. unicellular

b. multicellular

c. prokaryotic

d. pirates

Answer: b

ALL cells, both prokaryotic and eukaryotic, have each of the following EXCEPT

a. vacuoles

b. cell membrane

c. cytoplasm

d. DNA

e. ribosomes

Answer: a

Which of the following is NOT a function of the cytoskeleton?

a. helps the cell maintain its shape

b. helps the cell move

c. stores water and nutrients

d. helps organelles within the cell move

Answer: c 

Which of the following is a function of the nucleus?

a. stores DNA

b. controls most of the cells processes

c. contains information to make proteins

d. all of the above

Answer: d

Strands of carbohydrates can be found anchored in the cell membrane of most cells which serve the purpose of

a. food storage

b. cell-to-cell recognition

c. movement

d. facilitated diffusion

Answer: b

Diffusion is the overall (net) movement of molecules from an area of ____________ to an area of _____________ concentration.

a. low concentration; high

b. high concentration; low

c. equilibrium; high

d. all of the above

Answer: b

Which of the following is NOT found in the nucleus?

a. vesicles

b. chromatin

c. RNA

d. ribosome subunits

Answer: a

Which of the following organisms are prokaryotes?

a. plants

b. animals

c. bacteria

d. any of the above can be prokaryotic

Answer: c

Which of the following is a function of the cell membrane?

a. breaks down lipids, carbohydrates, and proteins from foods

b. stores water, salt, proteins, and carbohydrates

c. modifies proteins made by attached ribosomes

d. controls which materials enter and leave the cell

Answer: d

Which of the following means of particle transport requires energy from the cell?

a. diffusion

b. osmosis

c. endocytosis

d. facilitated diffusion

Answer: c

One of the main jobs of the liver is to break down toxins that enter the body. Inspecting one of the cells of the liver, which of the following would you expect to find in large quantity?

a. ribosomes

b. Golgi bodies

c. smooth ER

d. vacuoles

Answer: c

Which of the following is an organelle found in the cytoplasm?

a. nucleolus

b. vacuole

c. chromatin

d. all of the above

Answer: b

Which organelles help provide cells with energy?

a. mitochondria and chloroplast

b. Golgi apparatus and ribosomes

c. smooth ER and the nucleus

d. rough ER and the nucleus

Answer: a

Which sequence correctly traces the path of a protein in the cell?

a. ribosome, rough ER, Golgi apparatus

b. smooth ER, ribosome, rough ER

c. smooth ER, lysosome, Golgi apparatus

d. nucleus, rough ER, smooth ER

Answer: a

During diffusion, when the concentration of molecules on both sides of a membrane is the same, the molecules will

a. move across the membrane to the outside of the cell.

b. stop moving across the membrane.

c. continue to move across the membrane at the same rate in both directions.

d. move across the membrane to the inside of the cell.

Answer: c

Most of the cell membrane is composed of a type of lipid called

a. triglycerides

b. phospholipids

c. cholesterol

d. cellulose

Answer: b

When a stalk of broccoli is placed in a salty solution, its cells become

a. enlarged

b. turgid

c. torpid

d. flaccid

Answer: d

The evolution of paired fins was important to early fishes because paired fins

a. led directly to the evolution of gill arches.

b. led directly to the evolution of paired legs in mammals.

c. increased the stability and maneuverability of the fishes. d. allowed the fishes to seize and manipulate prey.

Answer: c

Jaws are thought to have evolved from the

a. second and third vertebrae.

b. first pair of gill arches

c. first pair of fins

d. anterior half of the pharynx

Answer: b

The earliest vertebrates were 

a. bony fishes.

b. spiny fishes with skeletons of cartilage

c. amphibians with thin, moist skin

d. jawless fishes

Answer: d

Which of the following fishes is jawless? 

a. hagfish 

b. ray

c. guppy 

d. catfish

Answer: a

Skates belong to the class

a. Myxini

b. Chondrichthyes. 

c. Reptilia.

d. Amphibia.

Answer: b

All of the following are vertebrate characteristics except

a. a post-anal tail.

b. pharyngeal pouches.

c. a ventral hollow nerve cord.

d. an endoskeleton

Answer: c

Unlike adult lancelets, adult tunicates

a. have segmented muscles in their tail.

b. are radially symmetrical

c. are usually sessile

d. have separate sexes

Answer: c

A lancelet feeds by

a. pursuing and capturing small animals with its tentacles. 

b. sucking blood from the skin of a larger animal.

c. digesting nutrients contained in the bottom sediments it swallows.

d. filtering food particles from the water that passes through its pharynx.

Answer: d

Animals in the subphyla Cephalochordata and Urochordata live

a. only in fresh water

b. only in the ocean

c. only on land

d. in fresh water, in the ocean, and on land

Answer: b

The gill chambers of aquatic chordates evolved from theThe gill chambers of aquatic chordates evolved from the

The gill chambers of aquatic chordates evolved from the

a. dorsal nerve cord.

b. backbone.

c. pharyngeal pouches

d. postanal tail

Answer: c

In most chordates, the function of the notochord is taken over by the

a. vertebral column. 

b. brain. 

c. spinal cord. 

d. pharynx.

Answer: a

The subphylum Crustacea includes

a. insects. 

b. spiders. 

c. ticks. 

d. shrimps.

Answer: d

Ancestral arthropods probably had

a. no coelom.

b. one pair of appendages on every segment.

c. bodies consisting of a few, highly specialized tagmata. 

d. endoskeletons.

Answer: b

An arthropod sheds its old exoskeleton when

a. the old exoskeleton wears out.

b. the new exoskeleton exerts pressure on the epidermis.

c. the animal is 1-2 years old.

d. a hormone is produced that induces molting.

Answer: d

One feature that arthropods share with annelids is 

a. a closed circulatory system

b. jointed appendages

c. a ventral nerve cord

d. a lack of cephalization

Answer: c

An arthropod's exoskeleton performs all of the following functions except

a. producing gametes.

b. protecting internal organs

c. supporting the animal's weight

d. helping prevent desiccation

Answer: a

All annelids in the class Oligochaeta and Hirudinea have 

a. gills.

b. parapodia.

c. a segmented coelom.

d. an open circulatory system.

Answer: c

One difference between leeches and polychaetes is that leeches 

a. do not have segments

b. do not have setae

c. have parapodia

d. are never carnivorous

Answer: b

An earthworm uses its setae to 

a. grip the soil surface.

b. contract in a circular direction

c. contract in a longitudinal direction

d. form a protective case for its eggs

Answer: a

Segmentation is an advantage for annelid worms because it

a. requires the whole body to move as a single unit. 

b. reduces the number of setae on the parapodia.

c. divides the pseudocoelom into multiple compartments.

d. is accompanied by the duplication of some internal organs.

Answer: d

An octopus generally moves by

a. pumping a jet of water through its incurrent siphon. 

b. crawling along the bottom with its tentacles.

c. gliding on a layer of mucus with the help of cilia.

d. repeatedly opening its valves and snapping them shut.

Answer: b

Bivalves have all of the following structures except

a. a radula. 

b. adductor muscles. 

c. siphons.

d. gills

Answer: a

Mollusks in the class Gastropoda

a. lack a distinct head.

b. have an open circulatory system.

c. do not have a hemocoel.

d. are usually sessile.

Answer: b

One feature that is shared by many mollusks and annelids is the

a. radula. 

b. mantle cavity.

c. trochophore

d. pseudopodium

Answer: c

One advantage of a coelom over a pseudocoelom is that a coelom

a. contains fluid while a pseudocoelom does not. 

b. is completely surrounded by endoderm.

c. eliminates the need for a circulatory system.

d. allows body wall muscles to contract without hindering digestion.

Answer: d

A rotifer's excretory system includes

a. flame cells and excretory tubules. 

b. contractile vacuoles. 

c. a single, small kidney.

d. many excretory pores on the body surface.

Answer: a

Hookworms normally reach the human intestine after they

a. are ingested as cysts in contaminated meat.

b. bore directly from the skin of the abdomen to the intestine.

c. enter the host's anus and migrate to the intestine.

d. travel through the blood to the lungs and throat and are then swallowed.

Answer: d

Ascaris eggs enter the body of a human host when the

a. host ingests contaminated food or water.

b. eggs attach to the bare sole of a human foot.

c. eggs are inhaled as spores.

d. cysts rupture inside uncooked meat.

Answer: a

The roundworm digestive tract

a. has no opening.

b. has a single opening.

c. has two openings.

d. is absent parasitic roundworms

Answer: c

Pseudocoelomates have a hollow, fluid-filled cavity that is

a. lined by ectoderm on the outside and mesoderm on the inside. 

b. lined by mesoderm on the outside and endoderm on the inside.

c. completely surrounded by mesoderm. 

d. completely surrounded by endoderm.

Answer: b

The primary hosts of beef tapeworms are

a. cows.

b. snails.

c. pigs

d. humans.

Answer: d

The eggs of the blood fluke Schistosoma

a. leave the primary host in feces or urine. 

b. are produced by hermaphroditic adults.

c. must be deposited on dry land to develop. 

d. are ingested by the intermediate host.

Answer: a

One difference between free-living flatworms and parasitic flatworms is that

a. free-living flatworms have proglottids.

b. free-living flatworms do not have a gastrovascular cavity.

c. parasitic flatworms have simpler life cycles. 

d. parasitic flatworms have a tegument.

Answer: d

The gastrovascular cavity of a flatworm

a. has no opening to the outside. 

b. has a single opening.

c. has two openings

d. is connected to the outside by numerous pores

Answer: b

Flatworms are the simplest animals with

a. a backbone. 

b. a coelom.

c. bilateral symmetry

d. radical symmetry

Answer: c

Ctenophores move through the water by 

a. somersaulting

b. contracting their bell-shaped bodies

c. beating their cilia

d. rotating like a propeller

Answer: c

Corals exist in a symbiotic relationship with 

a. fungi 

b. algae

c. hydras

d. mosses

Answer: b

An example of a cnidarian in the class Hydrozoa is a 

a. coral.

b. sea anemone.

c. jellyfish.

d. Portuguese man-of-war.

Answer: d

The structure that coordinates the complex activities of a cnidarian's body is the

a. gastrovascular cavity. 

b. colloblast.

c. nerve net. 

d. tentacle.

Answer: c

Cnidarians and ctenophores are more complex than sponges because, unlike sponges, they have

a. tissues and organs. 

b. both asexual and sexual reproduction

c. a skeleton

d. a backbone

Answer: a

After a sponge egg is fertilized, it develops into a(n)

a. external bud. 

b. gemmule. 

c. larva. 

d. gastrula.

Answer: c

Sponges eliminate carbon dioxide and cellular wastes by

a. allowing them to diffuse into the water that passes through the sponge.

b. excreting them into the surrounding water through pores in the body wall.

c. transporting them to an excretory organ that empties into the osculum. 

d. converting them into usable carbohydrates.

Answer: a

Choanocytes perform all of the following functions except

a. pumping water into the interior of the sponge.

b. engulfing and digesting food that is filtered from the water.

c. passing nutrients to amebocytes.

d. distributing nutrients throughout the rest of the body.

Answer: d

Adult sponges are sessile, which means that they

a. have no gastrula stage.

b. attach to a surface and do not move.

c. use a jellylike substance for body support.

d. produce both eggs and sperm

Answer: b

Invertebrates are animals that lack

a. true tissues. 

b. true organs. 

c. a skeleton.

d. a backbone.

Answer: d

Development of zygotes outside the body of the female parent is a characteristic of

a. all fishes and amphibians.

b. many fishes, amphibians, reptiles, and birds.

c. all reptiles and birds.

d. reptiles, birds, and some amphibians.

Answer: b

The moist skin of an amphibian functions as

a. a respiratory organ.

b. a structure for conserving water.

c. an insulating material. 

d. a rigid exoskeleton.

Answer: a

A hermaphrodite is an organism that 

a. produces only male gametes.

b. produces only female gametes.

c. produces both male and female gametes 

d. does not produce any gametes

Answer: c

A gut is a

a. structure specialized for gas exchange in water. 

b. simple excretory organ of invertebrates.

c. digestive chamber with one opening.

d. digestive tract that runs through the body.

Answer: d

In a closed circulatory system,

a. cells exchange nutrients directly with the environment. 

b. the bloodlike circulatory fluid never leaves the coelom.

c. blood circulates through the body in tubular vessels. 

d. the blood carries gases but not nutrients or wastes.

Answer: c

A body cavity aids in an animal's movement by

a. anchoring the animal firmly to objects in its environment.

b. providing a firm structure against which muscles can contract.

c. giving rise to muscle tissue during embryonic development. 

d. secreting a fluid that allows the animal to glide over surfaces.

Answer: b

Cephalization is associated with

a. bilaterally symmetrical animals.

b. radially symmetrical animals.

c. sponges. 

d. hydras.

Answer: a

Scientists infer that the first invertebrates evolved from

a. simple vertebrates.

b. large groups of bacteria.

c. loosely connected fungi. 

d. colonial protists.

Answer: d

An animal's ability to move results from the interrelationship between 

a. dermal tissue and vascular tissue

b. vascular tissue and nervous tissue 

c. nervous tissue and muscle tissue 

d. muscle tissue and ground tissue

Answer: c

Which of the following statements accurately describes animals?

a. all animals are multicellular, all are heterotrophic, and all lack cell walls.

b. all animals are multicellular, some are heterotrophic, and some lack cell walls.

c. some animals are multicellular, all are heterotrophic, and all lack cell walls

d. some animals are multicellular, some are heterotrophic, and some lack cell walls.

Answer: a

The life cycle of a vascular plant is characterized by

a. a large gametophyte and a small sporophyte. 

b. a large sporophyte and a small gametophyte.

c. the absence of a sporophyte. 

d. the absence of a gametophyte.

Answer: B

Pine trees are a type of 

a. nonvascular plant

b. angiosperm

c. gymnosperm

d. herbaceous plant

Answer: C

Ferns are a type of 

a. vascular plant

b. seed plant

c. angiosperm

d. gymnosperm

Answer: A

The plant tissue that transports water from the roots to the leaves is the

a. phloem

b. xylem

c. endosperm

d. woody tissue

Answer: B

Each of the following is a part of a seed except the

a. embryo. 

b. endosperm. 

c. seed coat. 

d. gametophyte.

Answer: D

The artificial fabric rayon is made from

a. rayon grass.

b. processed wood fibers.

c. coal

d. petroleum

Answer: B

All of the following plants are used for their medicinal value except the

a. cinchona tree. 

b. white willow. 

c. coconut. 

d. foxglove.

Answer: C

Black pepper is the ground-up seed of a pepper plant, which makes pepper

a. a fruit. 

b. a flavoring. 

c. an herb. 

d. a spice.

Answer: D

Legumes are valuable crops because they have protein-rich seeds and because

a. they improve the nitrogen content of soil. 

b. their leaves are used as herbs.

c. their leaves are fed to livestock. 

d. their bark is a source of quinine.

Answer: A

In cultivating wheat, early farmers selected wheat plants

a. whose seeds were easily dispersed.

b. whose stalks did not break easily in the wind.

c. that produced the fewest grains. 

d. that had the largest seed pods.

Answer: B

The automobile fuel gasohol is made in part with

a. aflatoxins produced by Amanita.

b. gluconic acid produced by Saccharomyces cerevisiae.

c. ethanol produced by yeast. 

d. citric acid produced by yeast.

Answer: C

Which of the following is not a fungal product of importance to the food-processing industry?

a. vitamin B2 

b. wheat rust 

c. citric acid 

d. gluconic acid

Answer: B

Fungi of the genus Cephalosporium are used to produce

a. mushrooms. 

b. cheese. 

c. antibiotics. 

d. soy products.

Answer: C

The yeast Saccharomyces cerevisiae is used to make all of the following except

a. bread. 

b. vaccines. 

c. ethanol. 

d. penicillin.

Answer: D

Fungal diseases that affect human internal organs are often caused by

a. dimorphic fungi. 

b. deuteromycetes. 

c. truffles. 

d. morels.

Answer: A

Which of the following is not a condition or disease that can be caused by fungi?

a. athlete's foot 

b. AIDS 

c. ringworm 

d. candidiasis

Answer: B

Sniffling, sneezing, and respiratory distress may be symptoms of an allergic reaction to

a. cortisone. 

b. the Amanita mushroom. 

c. the yeast Candida albicans. 

d. mold spores.

Answer: D

Biologists think that the first fungi on Earth arose from 

a. prokaryotes. 

b. algae. 

c. plants.

d. animals

Answer: A

Throughout most of their life cycle, most fungi are

a. male. 

b. female. 

c. diploid.

d. haploid.

Answer: D

Which of the following is NOT an asexual reproductive structure of a fungus?

a. septum 

b. sporangium 

c. conidiophore

d. sporangiospore

Answer: A

Unlike animals, fungi

a. ingest their nutrients before digesting them.

b. secrete enzymes and then absorb the digested nutrients through their cell wall.

c. have cell walls made of cellulose without chitin. d. do not store energy in the form of glycogen.

Answer: B

All fungi are

a. multicellular and prokaryotic. 

b. prokaryotic and photosynthetic. 

c. eukaryotic and nonphotosynthetic. 

d. unicellular and photosynthetic.

Answer: C

Separate sperm-containing and egg-containing structures are produced by 

a. cellular slime molds. 

b. plasmodial slime molds. 

c. water molds.

d. chytrids.

Answer: C

A plasmodial slime mold will generally form a fruiting body when

a. its host dies.

b. the number of cells in the plasmodium becomes too large.

c. the environment becomes too cold. 

d. food or water is scarce.

Answer: D

Algae are classified into phyla based on all of the following except their

a. type of photosynthetic pigment.

b. form of food storage. 

c. presence or absence of flagella. 

d. cell wall composition.

Answer: C

The body portion of a seaweed is called a 

a. pyrenoid

b. holdfast

c. sporophyte

d. thallus

Answer: D

Algae differ from protozoans in that algae are 

a. heterotrophic

b. photosynthetic

c. always multicellular

d. always unicellular

Answer: B

Most species in the phylum Apicomplexa are

a. aquatic and move by using cilia.

b. terrestrial and move by extending pseudopodia.

c. parasitic and have complex life cycles. 

d. free-living and reproduce only asexually.

Answer: C

One disease caused by a mastigophoran is

a. amebic dysentery. 

b. malaria.

c. sleeping sickness. 

d. toxoplasmosis.

Answer: C

Sexual reproduction in ciliates involves

a. binary fission and the formation of two identical offspring.

b. the exchange of diploid macronuclei between two individuals. 

c. the exchange of haploid micronuclei between two individuals.

d. the exchange of macronuclei and micronuclei between two individuals.

Answer: C

Which of the following is formed from the tests of dead sarcodines?

a. granite 

b. limestone 

c. sandstone 

d. pearls

Answer: B

Amoebas move by means of a process known as

a. vacuolar contracting

b. cytoplasmic streaming

c. flagellar whipping

d.ciliary beating

Answer: B

Protists are thought to have evolved from 

a. early viruses

b. early eukaryotes

c. ancient prokaryotes

d. modern fungi

Answer: C

All of the following are structures used for protist movement except

a. cilia

b. flagella

c. zoospores

d. pseudopodia

Answer: C

All protists are capable of 

a. asexual reproduction

b. sexual reproduction

c. either asexual or sexual reproduction

d. conjugation

Answer: C

One characteristic that is not found in any protozoan is 

a. heterotrophy 

b. multicellularity

c. motility

d. parasitism

Answer: B

Protozoans are members of the kingdom

a. Animalia

b. Plantae

c. Fungi

d. Protista

Answer: D

In humans, PKU can be treated by 

a. insulin injections 

b. diet 

c. gene therapy 

d. surgery

Answer: B

A trait whose expression is affected by the presence of sex hormones is said to be 

a. sex-influenced 

b. sex-linked 

c. X-linked 

d. Y-linked

Answer: A

Which of the following human traits is not a polygenic trait? 

a. skin color 

b. eye color 

c. height 

d. ABO blood type

Answer: D

Since the ABO blood group alleles are codominant, an individual with the genotype I^A I^B will have blood type 

a. A

b. B 

c. AB 

d. O

Answer: C

Which individual(s) in the pedigree shown below must be a carrier? 

a. 1 only 

b. 4 only 

c. 3 only 

d. both 1 and 4

Answer: D

Which of the following is a point mutation that does not produce a frameshift? 

a. substitution 

b. insertion 

c. deletion 

d. inversion

Answer: A

Which of the following sequences could result from an inversion of the sequence GAGACATT?

a. GAGCATT

b. GTGACATT

c. CTCTGATT

d. GATACAGT

Answer: D

Mutations that can be inherited arise in 

a. somatic cells 

b. body cells 

c. germ cells 

d. skin cells

Answer: C

Two genes that are one map unit apart are separated by crossing-over

a. 1% of the time 

b. 20% of the time 

c. 50% of the time 

d. 100% of the time

Answer: A

Genes that belong to the same linkage group tend to be 

a. located on different chromosomes 

b. inherited together 

c. found only in males 

d. found only in somatic cells

Answer: B

For which of the following are newborn infants not routinely screened at birth?

A) PKU

B) color blindness

C) imperforate anus

D) congenital hip dysplasia

Answer: B) color blindness

Gene mutations in the sex chromosomes of the human would tend to become visibly expressed ________.

A) more frequently in males

B) more frequently in females

C) equally frequently in both sexes

D) in neither males or females

Answer: A) more frequently in males

A couple whose blood types are A (IAi) and B (IBi) may have a child with which of the following blood types?

A) AB only

B) A or B only

C) A, B, AB, or O

D) AB or O only

Answer: C) A, B, AB, or O

Amy's hand was exposed to X rays. A gene in a skin cell of her hand mutated. This mutant gene will ________.

A) definitely cause skin cancer

B) replicate itself and be passed on to Amy's children

C) not form an exact duplicate of itself when the cell divides

D) replicate itself when the cell divides but will not be passed on to Amy's offspring

Answer: D) replicate itself when the cell divides but will not be passed on to Amy's offspring

The main way a recessive allele would be expressed even when only one copy is present would be ________.

A) dominance

B) recessive inheritance

C) sex-linked inheritance

D) incomplete dominance

Answer: C) sex-linked inheritance

_______ is the most common type of fetal testing.

A) Blood chemistry

B) Amniocentesis

C) A DNA probe

D) CVS

Answer: B) Amniocentesis

Huntington's disease involves ________.

A) hypersecretion of growth hormone

B) the presence of an extra chromosome

C) degeneration of the basal nuclei of the brain

D) hyposecretion of thyroxine

Answer: C) degeneration of the basal nuclei of the brain

Which of the following statements is true concerning genetic screening?

A) Screening is illegal in over half of the world.

B) Screening can be done only in the first trimester of pregnancy.

C) Genetic screening is rarely done because it yields very little accurate information.

D) Screening can be done before conception by carrier recognition or during fetal testing.

Answer: D) Screening can be done before conception by carrier recognition or during fetal testing.

A chromosomal aberration in which part of a chromosome is lost is known as ________.

A) deletion

B) inversion

C) translocation

D) crossing-over

Answer: A) deletion

Inheritance of stature (height) in humans is probably due to ________.

A) polyploidy

B) polymorphism

C) incomplete dominance

D) polygene inheritance

Answer: D) polygene inheritance

An individual who is heterozygous for a particular trait, yet expresses both alleles of that trait, is an example of ________.

A) dominance

B) recessive inheritance

C) incomplete dominance

D) sex-linked inheritance

Answer: C) incomplete dominance

Which of the following is true concerning environmental influence on genetic expression?

A) It is impossible to alter in any way the expression of a gene in humans.

B) The only time a gene can be influenced by environmental factors is in the second trimester of pregnancy.

C) Environmental factors determine the way in which 90 percent of our genes are expressed.

D) Drugs and nutrition can alter normal gene expression.

Answer: D) Drugs and nutrition can alter normal gene expression.

Sex chromosomes of a normal male are ________.

A) XX

B) YY

C) XY

D) any of these, depending on the father

Answer: C

A woman has blond hair and brown eyes. This statement is best described as indicating ________.

A) allelic pairs

B) recessive traits

C) phenotype

D) genotype

Answer: C) Phenotype

In meiosis the spermatozoa that are produced are genetically unlike each other and unlike the cell that produces them. This is one reason for the great variation among humans. What causes this effect?

A) crossing-over, chromosome segregation, and independent assortment

B) crossing-over and chromosome segregation only

C) chromosome segregation and independent assortment only

D) crossing-over and independent assortment only

Answer: D) crossing-over and independent assortment only

The reason recessive genetic disorders are more frequent than disorders inherited as dominant is that ________.

A) dominant genetic disorders are never expressed in males

B) people carrying dominant genetic disorders always die before birth

C) carriers are not eliminated by the disease before passing the defective alleles on to their offspring

D) recessive genetic disorders are limited to persons of the same ethnicity

Answer: C) carriers are not eliminated by the disease before passing the defective alleles on to their offspring

The gene responsible for the condition known as sickle-cell anemia demonstrates ________.

A) incomplete dominance

B) a dominant genetic disorder

C) a sex-linked genetic disorder

D) a recessive genetic disorder

Answer: A) incomplete dominance

An example of multiple-allele inheritance is ________.

A) the ABO blood group

B) the appearance of freckles on the skin

C) the appearance of birthmarks on the skin

D) hair that seems to have several shades of a color

Answer: A) the ABO blood group

Recessive genes are usually expressed in humans only when ________.

A) they are coding for skin color

B) they are coding for genetic diseases

C) the organism is in the embryonic stage

D) both alleles are exactly the same, or homozygous

Answer: D) both alleles are exactly the same, or homozygous

Those characteristics that can be determined on superficial inspection of an individual are known as ________.

A) genotypic

B) polygenic

C) polyspermic

D) phenotypic

Answer: D) phenotypic

Is genetic diversity due entirely to inherited genes on the sex chromosomes?

A) Yes, because the female has two X chromosomes and the male has only one X chromosome.

B) Yes, because the male has a Y chromosome.

C) Yes, because genetic diversity is due to the Y influence on the autosomes.

D) No, because genetic diversity has nothing to do with the sex chromosomes but is due to crossing-over of chromosomes, independent assortment of chromosomes, and segregation of chromosomes.

Answer: D) No, because genetic diversity has nothing to do with the sex chromosomes but is due to crossing-over of chromosomes, independent assortment of chromosomes, and segregation of chromosomes.

A female infant is born with several hundred oocytes, each one genetically unique. This is due to ________.

A) mutation

B) recessive inheritance

C) chromosome deletion

D) independent assortment and random crossover

Answer: D) independent assortment and random crossover

Two alleles expressing exactly the same information for a trait are designated as ________.

A) hemizygous

B) monogamous

C) heterozygous

D) homozygous

Answer: D) homozygous

Dominant alleles are so called because under most circumstances they ________.

A) code for desired traits only

B) suppress the expression of other alleles

C) code for genes that are never considered lethal

D) code for most phenotypic and genotypic expressions of a trait

Answer: B) suppress the expression of other alleles

Select the correct statement about the special fetal blood vessels.

A) The distal parts of the umbilical arteries form the superior vesical arteries.

B) The fossa ovalis becomes the foramen ovale.

C) The umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres.

D) The hepatic portal vein forms from the umbilical artery.

Answer: C) The umbilical vein becomes the ligamentum teres.

The decidua basalis is ________.

A) destined to remain in the uterus after the birth of the infant

B) located between the developing embryo and the myometrium

C) not a maternal contribution to the placenta

D) the tissue that surrounds the uterine cavity face of the implanted embryo

Answer: B) located between the developing embryo and the myometrium

Which of the following is not usually considered a teratogen?

A) aspirin

B) wine

C) thalidomide

D) German measles

Answer: A) aspirin

Derivatives of the mesoderm include ________.

A) all nervous tissue

B) endothelium of blood and lymph vessels

C) glandular derivatives of the digestive tract

D) epithelium of the digestive tract

Answer: B) endothelium of blood and lymph vessels

Derivatives of the endoderm include ________.

A) epithelium of the respiratory tract

B) synovial membranes of the joints

C) blood, bone marrow, and lymphoid tissue

D) organs of the urogenital system

Answer: A) epithelium of the respiratory tract

Which of the choices below occurs if fertilization of the ovum occurs and implantation takes place?

A) The corpus luteum is maintained until the placenta takes over its hormone-producing functions.

B) The corpus luteum degenerates and becomes the corpus albicans.

C) The ovarian cycle begins.

D) Increased levels of FSH will be produced.

Answer: A) The corpus luteum is maintained until the placenta takes over its hormone-producing functions.

Implantation of the blastocyst is the result of all of the following except ________.

A) phagocytosis by the trophoblast cells

B) proteolytic enzymes produced by the trophoblast cells

C) settling of the blastocyst onto the prepared uterine lining

D) adherence of the trophoblast cells to the endometrium

Answer: A) phagocytosis by the trophoblast cells

Cleavage as part of embryonic development is distinctive because it involves ________.

A) cell division by mitosis with little or no growth between successive divisions

B) forming the primary germ layer

C) splitting the cell into two separate cells

D) meiotic cell divisions

Answer: A) cell division by mitosis with little or no growth between successive divisions

Which of the following is true in reference to what may pass through the placental barriers?

A) nutrients and respiratory gases only

B) hormones, blood cells, and nutrients

C) nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, and alcohol

D) respiratory gases, hormones, nutrients, and blood cells

Answer: C) nutrients, respiratory gases, wastes, and alcohol

Sperm move to the uterine tube through uterine contractions and the energy of their own flagella. What other factor is involved in sperm movement?

A) hormonal attraction to the ova

B) reverse peristalsis of the uterus and uterine tubes

C) the cilia on the apex of the cells lining the endometrium

D) the increased temperature in the vagina, which stimulates sperm motility

Answer: B) reverse peristalsis of the uterus and uterine tubes

At which stage of labor is the "afterbirth" expelled?

A) dystocia

B) expulsion

C) placental

D) full dilation

Answer: C) placental

Which hormone is not produced by the placenta?

A) human placental lactogen

B) human chorionic thyrotropin

C) relaxin

D) inhibin

Answer: D) inhibin

During which stage of labor is the fetus delivered?

A) dilation stage

B) expulsion stage

C) placental stage

D) gastrula stage

Answer: B) expulsion stage

Muscle tissue is formed by the ________.

A) mesoderm

B) ectoderm

C) endoderm

D) epiderm

Answer: A) mesoderm

Neural tissue is formed by the ________.

A) epiderm

B) endoderm

C) mesoderm

D) ectoderm

Answer: D) ectoderm

The trophoblast is mostly responsible for forming the ________.

A) allantois

B) archenteron

C) placental tissue

D) lining of the endometrium

Answer: C) placental tissue

The cardiovascular system of a newborn must be adjusted after the infant takes its first breath. Which of the following is also true?

A) The foramen ovale between the atria of the fetal heart closes at the moment of birth.

B) The ductus venosus is disconnected at the severing of the umbilical cord and all visceral blood goes into the vena cava.

C) The urinary system is activated at birth.

D) The ductus arteriosus constricts and is converted to the ligamentum arteriosum.

Answer: D) The ductus arteriosus constricts and is converted to the ligamentum arteriosum.

How long is the egg viable and capable of being fertilized after it is ovulated?

A) 12-24 hours

B) 24-36 hours

C) 36-72 hours

D) a full week

Answer: A) 12-24 hours

Select the correct statement about fertilization.

A) Both spermatozoa and the ovulated secondary oocyte remain viable for about 72 hours in the female reproductive tract.

B) Millions of sperm cells are destroyed by the vagina's acidic environment.

C) If estrogen is present, the pathway through the cervical opening is blocked from sperm entry.

D) Once inside the uterus, most sperm cells are protected and remain viable.

Answer: B) Millions of sperm cells are destroyed by the vagina's acidic environment.

Shortly after implantation ________.

A) maternal blood sinuses bathe the inner cell mass

B) myometrical cells cover and seal off the blastocyst

C) the trophoblast forms two distinct layers

D) the embryo gastrulates (within 3 days)

Answer: C) the trophoblast forms two distinct layers

The dorsal surface cells of the inner cell mass form ________.

A) a structure called the embryonic disc

B) one of the fetal membranes

C) the primitive streak

D) the notochord

Answer: C) the primitive streak

A premature separation of the placenta from the uterine wall is called ________.

A) ectopic pregnancy

B) abrupto placenta

C) placenta previa

D) placenta cleavage

Answer: B) abrupto placenta

The correct sequence of preembryonic structures is ________.

A) zygote, blastocyst, morula

B) zygote, morula, blastocyst

C) blastocyst, morula, zygote

D) morula, zygote, blastocyst

Answer: B) zygote, morula, blastocyst