The optic foramen is most closely associated with the
A) optic nerve
B) optic chiasm
C) thalamus
D) optic tract
Answer: A
The optic foramen is most closely associated with the
A) optic nerve
B) optic chiasm
C) thalamus
D) optic tract
Answer: A
A) optic nerve
B) optic chiasm
C) thalamus
D) optic tract
Answer: A
Cerebrospinal fluid reabsorbs into the blood through
Cerebrospinal fluid reabsorbs into the blood through
A) lateral apertures
B) arachnoid villi
C) interventricular foramina
D) choroid plexues
Answer: B
Which of the following is a component of the blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier that functions to protect the brain and spinal cord from harmful blood-borne substances?
Which of the following is a component of the blood-cerebrospinal fluid barrier that functions to protect the brain and spinal cord from harmful blood-borne substances?
A) tight junctions between capillary endothelial cells
B) chemicals secreted by astrocytes
C) tight junctions between ependymal cells
D) thick basement membrane
Answer: C
Brains of Alzheimer's victims show all but which of the following?
Brains of Alzheimer's victims show all but which of the following?
A) neurofibrillary tangles
B) beta-amyloid plaques
C) loss of neurons that liberate dopamine
D) loss of neurons that liberate acetylcholine
Answer: C
At which stage of development do the secondary brain vesicles occur?
At which stage of development do the secondary brain vesicles occur?
A) first week
B) fifth week
C) third or fourth week
D) seventh to eighth
Answer: B
The nervous system begins development as a thickening of the ectoderm called the
The nervous system begins development as a thickening of the ectoderm called the
A) neural crest
B) neural tube
C) neural plate
D) neuroderm
Answer: C
Sensory axons of the glossopharyngeal nerve do not arise from which of the following?
Sensory axons of the glossopharyngeal nerve do not arise from which of the following?
A) proprioreceptors of some swallowing muscles
B) chemoreceptors in the carotid bodies
C) baroreceptors in the carotid sinus
D) taste buds on the anterior two-thirds of the tongue
Answer: D
What is the reason that the olfactory bulbs are located above the cribiform plate?
What is the reason that the olfactory bulbs are located above the cribiform plate?
A) They will be closer to the olfactory epithelium.
B) They are more protected in this location than other cranial nerves.
C) They will be closer to the region of the brain that processes olfaction.
D) There are no reasons for this.
Answer: A
Of the cranial nerves listed, which is the most posterior?
Of the cranial nerves listed, which is the most posterior?
A) optic (II) nerve
B) trochlear (IV) nerve
C) facial (VII) nerve
D) vagus (X) nerve
Answer: D
Of the cranial nerves listed, which is the most anterior?
Of the cranial nerves listed, which is the most anterior?
A) facial nerve (VII)
B) optic (II) nerve
C) vagus (X) nerve
D) trochlear (IV) nerve
Answer: B
The gray matter of the two halves of the thalamus is divided by a vertical sheet of white matter called the
The gray matter of the two halves of the thalamus is divided by a vertical sheet of white matter called the
A) intermediate mass
B) internal capsule
C) internal medullary lamina
D) internal peduncle
Answer: C
Which of the following is the largest of the bundles of tracts that connect the cerebellum to other parts of the brain?
Which of the following is the largest of the bundles of tracts that connect the cerebellum to other parts of the brain?
A) arbor vitae
B) inferior cerebellar peduncle
C) superior cerebellar peduncle
D) middle cerebellar peduncle
Answer: D
Which of the following is the midbrain structure that contains neurons that release dopamine to the basal nuclei?
Which of the following is the midbrain structure that contains neurons that release dopamine to the basal nuclei?
A) substantia nigra
B) cerebral peduncles
C) red nuclei
D) inferior colliculi
Answer: A
Which of the following function is usually performed by the left hemisphere?
Which of the following function is usually performed by the left hemisphere?
A) space and pattern perception
B) musical and artistic awareness
C) numerical and scientific skills
D) identifying and discriminating odors
Answer: C
The frontal and temporal lobes are separated by the
The frontal and temporal lobes are separated by the
A) longitudinal fissure
B) lateral cerebral fissure
C) insula
D) central sulcus
Answer: B
All of the following are part of the diencephalon EXCEPT for the
All of the following are part of the diencephalon EXCEPT for the
A) hypothalamus
B) epithalamus
C) perithalamus
D) thalamus
Answer: C
Impulses travel from the cerebellum to other parts of the brain in the
Impulses travel from the cerebellum to other parts of the brain in the
A) arbor vitae
B) floccolonodular lobes
C) cerebellar hemispheres
D) cerebral hemispheres
Answer: C
The pyramids of the medulla contain
The pyramids of the medulla contain
A) bundles of corticospinal tracts
B) nuclei of the reticular system
C) nuclei of both sensory and motor axon bundles
D) bundles of sensory tracts to the cerebrum
Answer: A
Which of the following is the outermost of the cranial meninges?
Which of the following is the outermost of the cranial meninges?
A) pia mater
B) dura mater
C) arachnoid mater
D) epithalamus
Answer: B
The metencephalon and mylencephalon develop from which primary brain vesicle?
The metencephalon and mylencephalon develop from which primary brain vesicle?
A) telencephalon
B) mesencephalon
C) rhombencephalon
D) proencephalon
Answer: C
Common causes of strokes include all of the following EXCEPT
Common causes of strokes include all of the following EXCEPT
A) atherosclerosis
B) emboli
C) intracerebral hemorrhage
D) neurofibrillary tangles
Answer: D
Brain function decreases in the elderly for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
Brain function decreases in the elderly for all of the following reasons EXCEPT
A) reflex times increase
B) number of synaptic contacts decline
C) number of neurons decrease significantly
D) conduction velocity decreases
Answer: C
Through which foramen do axons of motor neurons of the glossopharyngeal nerve pass through?
Through which foramen do axons of motor neurons of the glossopharyngeal nerve pass through?
A) superior orbital fissure
B) jugular
C) occipital
D) carotid
Answer: B
The postcentral gyrus functions as the (blank) area.
The postcentral gyrus functions as the (blank) area.
A) primary motor area
B) primary auditory area
C) auditory association area
D) primary somatosensory area
Answer: D
Which of the basal nuclei has a head, body, and tail?
Which of the basal nuclei has a head, body, and tail?
A) putamen
B) lentiform nucleus
C) globus pallidus
D) caudate nucleus
Answer: D
Muscle spindles contain neurons called (blank) motor neurons.
Muscle spindles contain neurons called (blank) motor neurons.
A) alpha
B) beta
C) gamma
D) delta
Answer: C
Awakening from sleep is called
Awakening from sleep is called
A) consciousness
B) arousal
C) awake
D) ready
Answer: B
In the treatment of Parkinson's disease, a surgical technique known as (blank) involves the destruction of a part of the globus pallidus.
In the treatment of Parkinson's disease, a surgical technique known as (blank) involves the destruction of a part of the globus pallidus.
A) craniotomy
B) parkinsonectomy
C) pallidotomy
D) craniostomy
Answer: C
Which of the following would detect changes in the temperature of the air around you?
Which of the following would detect changes in the temperature of the air around you?
A) interoceptors
B) exteroceptors
C) nociceptors
D) proprioceptors
Answer: B
Third-order neurons conduct impulses from the thalamus to the primary somatosensory area of the cortex
Third-order neurons conduct impulses from the thalamus to the primary somatosensory area of the cortex
A) thalamus
B) hypothalamus
C) pons
D) epithalamus
Answer: A
Which of the following are components of the basal nuclei?
Which of the following are components of the basal nuclei?
A) putamen
B) caudate nucleus
C) globus pallidus
D) all of these
Answer: D
Which receptor exhibits very little sensory adaptation?
Which receptor exhibits very little sensory adaptation?
A) corpuscle of touch
B) nociceptor
C) lamellated corpuscle
D) hair root plexus
Answer: B
Which of the following is true regarding REM sleep?
Which of the following is true regarding REM sleep?
A) Sleepwalking typically occurs
B) Muscle tone is decreased
C) Most somatic motor neurons are stimulated
D) All of these
Answer: B
The (blank) is a thin ribbon-like projection tract that extends from the medulla to the thalamus
The (blank) is a thin ribbon-like projection tract that extends from the medulla to the thalamus
A) medial lemniscus
B) brain
C) pons
D) tendrils
Answer: A
If a receptor continues to trigger impulses as long as the stimulus is applied, then it is called a (blank) adapting receptor
If a receptor continues to trigger impulses as long as the stimulus is applied, then it is called a (blank) adapting receptor
A) rapid
B) slow
C) fast
D) none of these
Answer: B
Slowness of motor movements is called
Slowness of motor movements is called
A) bradykinesia
B) analgesia
C) hypokinesia
D) kinetics
Answer: A
Upper motor neurons from the (blank) regulate muscle tone and help maintain balance and orientation of the head and body.
Upper motor neurons from the (blank) regulate muscle tone and help maintain balance and orientation of the head and body.
A) cerebral cortex
B) brain stem
C) cerebellum
D) spinal cord
Answer: B
Most reflexes are intact and muscles are slightly relaxed in which stage of NREM sleep?
Most reflexes are intact and muscles are slightly relaxed in which stage of NREM sleep?
A) Stage 3
B) Stage 4
C) Stage 2
D) Stage 1
Answer: B
(blank) are receptors deep in the dermis which detect intense (high frequency) vibrations.
(blank) are receptors deep in the dermis which detect intense (high frequency) vibrations.
A) lamellated corpuscles
B) Meissner's corpuscles
C) radios
D) receivers
Answer: A
(blank) is the awareness of changes in the external or internal environment.
(blank) is the awareness of changes in the external or internal environment.
A) sensation
B) awakeness
C) arousal
D) readiness
Answer: A
Decreased range of motion in muscle movements is called
Decreased range of motion in muscle movements is called
A) hypokinesia
B) bradykinesia
C) aging
D) freezing
Answer: A
Which disease if left untreated can cause progressive degeneration of the posterior portion of the spinal column, loss of somatic sensations, and uncoordinated and jerky movements?
Which disease if left untreated can cause progressive degeneration of the posterior portion of the spinal column, loss of somatic sensations, and uncoordinated and jerky movements?
A) Huntington's disease
B) Parkinson's disease
C) syphilis
D) Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS)
Answer: C
The state of wakefulness is called
The state of wakefulness is called
A) consciousness
B) arousal
C) REM
D) awake
Answer: A
Interneurons in the brain stem and spinal cord called (blank) neurons provide input to lower motor neurons.
Interneurons in the brain stem and spinal cord called (blank) neurons provide input to lower motor neurons.
A) active
B) inactive
C) domestic circuit
D) local circuit
Answer: D
Slowly adapting touch receptors that respond to touch and light pressure called
Slowly adapting touch receptors that respond to touch and light pressure called
A) mechanoreceptors
B) nosiceptors
C) proprioceptors
D) none of these
Answer: A
If large enough, a (blank) potential at dendrites of a free nerve ending will produce an Action potential in the axon of a first-order sensory neuron.
If large enough, a (blank) potential at dendrites of a free nerve ending will produce an Action potential in the axon of a first-order sensory neuron.
A) receptor
B) action
C) neverending
D) restless
Answer: A
Treatment of Parkinson's disease involves taking dopamine orally.
Treatment of Parkinson's disease involves taking dopamine orally.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
Somatic sensory impulses from the face, mouth, teeth, and eyes travel along the (blank) nerves into the brain stem.
Somatic sensory impulses from the face, mouth, teeth, and eyes travel along the (blank) nerves into the brain stem.
A) peripheral
B) spinal
C) cranial
D) none of these
Answer: C
Which of the following is a part of the indirect motor (extrapyramidal) pathways?
Which of the following is a part of the indirect motor (extrapyramidal) pathways?
A) rubrospinal tract
B) vestibulospinal tract
C) tectospinal tract
D) all of these
Answer: D
The thermoreceptors which detect (blank) temperatures are located in the dermis.
The thermoreceptors which detect (blank) temperatures are located in the dermis.
A) warm
B) cold
C) freezing
D) room
Answer: A
Which is the percent of REM sleep in an infant?
Which is the percent of REM sleep in an infant?
A) 15%
B) 25%
C) 50%
D) 75%
Answer: C
Identify the stage of NREM sleep in which people are easily awakened.
Identify the stage of NREM sleep in which people are easily awakened.
A) Stage 1
B) Stage 2
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
Answer: A
If a person thinks of letters and numbers as having unique colors, this person has a condition called
If a person thinks of letters and numbers as having unique colors, this person has a condition called
A) hypokinesia
B) synesthesia
C) bradykinesia
D) analgesia
E) amnesia
Answer: B
Which indirect motor pathway has upper motor neurons that conduct impulses to skeletal muscles that are involved in maintaining posture and balance in response to head movements?
Which indirect motor pathway has upper motor neurons that conduct impulses to skeletal muscles that are involved in maintaining posture and balance in response to head movements?
A) vestibulospinal tract
B) tectospinal tract
C) rubrospinal tract
D) reticulospinal tract
Answer: A
Which of the following is a cause of coma?
Which of the following is a cause of coma?
A) seizures
B) stroke
C) alcohol intoxication
D) head injuries
E) all of these
Answer: E
The ability to acquire new knowledge or skills through instruction is called
The ability to acquire new knowledge or skills through instruction is called
A) learning
B) memory
C) plasticity
D) experience
Answer: A
Damage to the anterolateral (spinothalamic) tract at the level of T5 on the right side of the spinal cord would result in
Damage to the anterolateral (spinothalamic) tract at the level of T5 on the right side of the spinal cord would result in
A) loss of sensations of temperature and pain on the left side of the body below T5
B) paralysis on the left side of the body below T5
C) loss of sensations of temperature and pain on the left side of the body above T5
D) loss of sensations of temperature and pain on the right side of the body below T5
Answer: A
In Parkinson's disease, (blank) refers to the decreasing range of motion associated with shorter walking strides and reduced arm swing.
In Parkinson's disease, (blank) refers to the decreasing range of motion associated with shorter walking strides and reduced arm swing.
A) palsy
B) bradykinesia
C) synesthesia
D) hypokinesia
Answer: D
In ascending pathways, axons of (blank) neurons cross over to the opposite side in the brain stem or spinal cord before ascending.
In ascending pathways, axons of (blank) neurons cross over to the opposite side in the brain stem or spinal cord before ascending.
A) first-order
B) fourth-order
C) third-order
D) second-order
Answer: D
Which receptor type senses touch and stretching of skin and is slow to adapt?
Which receptor type senses touch and stretching of skin and is slow to adapt?
A) type II cutaneous mechanoreceptor
B) hair root plexus
C) type I cutaneous mechanoreceptor
D) corpuscle of touch
Answer: A
Referred pain from a heart attack is felt in the skin over the heart and
Referred pain from a heart attack is felt in the skin over the heart and
A) over the left side of the neck
B) over the right side of the neck
C) along the left arm
D) along the right arm
Answer: C
In Parkinson's disease, the slowness of movements that increase the time needed to perform tasks such as buttoning a shirt is referred to as
In Parkinson's disease, the slowness of movements that increase the time needed to perform tasks such as buttoning a shirt is referred to as
A) tremor
B) pallidotomy
C) hypokinesia
D) bradykinesia
Answer: D
Which stage of NREM sleep is known as "light sleep" in which a person may experience fragments of dreams and the eyes may slowly roll from side to side?
Which stage of NREM sleep is known as "light sleep" in which a person may experience fragments of dreams and the eyes may slowly roll from side to side?
A) Stage 2
B) Stage 1
C) Stage 3
D) Stage 4
Answer: A
Which of the following would be unable to stimulate the reticular activating system and lead to arousal?
Which of the following would be unable to stimulate the reticular activating system and lead to arousal?
A) sound of birds singing nearby
B) sunlight shining through an opened window
C) smell of freshly brewed coffee
D) pressure of a cat's feet walking over your torso
Answer: C
Uncontrollable shaking and muscle stiffness are characteristic of
Uncontrollable shaking and muscle stiffness are characteristic of
A) spastic paralysis
B) Tourette syndrome
C) Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis
D) Parkinson's disease
Answer: D
Which pathway conveys nerve impulses from the red nucleus to contralateral skeletal muscles that govern precise, voluntary movements of distal parts of the upper limbs?
Which pathway conveys nerve impulses from the red nucleus to contralateral skeletal muscles that govern precise, voluntary movements of distal parts of the upper limbs?
A) lateral corticospinal
B) tectospinal
C) vestibulospinal
D) rubrospinal
Answer: D
The primary motor area is located in the
The primary motor area is located in the
A) postcentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
B) precentral gyri of the parietal lobes
C) postcentral gyri of the parietal lobes
D) precentral gyrus of the frontal lobe
Answer: D
First-order neurons conduct nerve impulses from somatic receptors to the
First-order neurons conduct nerve impulses from somatic receptors to the
A) brain stem only
B) spinal cord or brain stem
C) cerebellum only
D) spinal cord only
Answer: B
Which pathway conveys information for pain and temperature from the arms?
Which pathway conveys information for pain and temperature from the arms?
A) anterolateral
B) posterior column-medial lemniscus
C) spinocerebellar
D) trigeminothalamic
Answer: A
Which proprioceptors are concerned with muscle tension and are slow to adapt?
Which proprioceptors are concerned with muscle tension and are slow to adapt?
A) lamellated corpuscles
B) joint kinesthetic receptors
C) tendon organs
D) muscle spindles
Answer: C
(blank) is sustained sensation over a large area.
(blank) is sustained sensation over a large area.
A) Touch
B) Itch
C) Vibration
D) Pressure
Answer: D
Which of the following receptors are slow to adapt?
Which of the following receptors are slow to adapt?
A) pain
B) smell
C) pressure
D) temperature
Answer: A
Which sense is served by a separate receptor cell that synapses with a sensory neuron?
Which sense is served by a separate receptor cell that synapses with a sensory neuron?
A) touch
B) smell
C) taste
D) pressure
Answer: C
Proprioception is
Proprioception is
A) a special sense
B) a general and somatic sense
C) detection of pain
D) a general and visceral sense
Answer: B
The cerebral cortex is required for
The cerebral cortex is required for
A) subconscious detection of environmental changes
B) transduction of the stimulus
C) conscious interpretation of sensations
D) stimulation of the sensory receptor
Answer: C
Fatty, rounded area overlying the pubic symphysis
Fatty, rounded area overlying the pubic symphysis
A) mons pubis
B) clitoris
C) ovary
D) uterine (fallopian) tube
E) vagina
F) uterus
G) labia minora
Answer: A
Structure that corresponds to the male penis
Structure that corresponds to the male penis
A) mons pubis
B) clitoris
C) ovary
D) uterine (fallopian) tube
E) vagina
F) uterus
G) labia minora
Answer: B
Organ that produces eggs
Organ that produces eggs
A) mons pubis
B) clitoris
C) ovary
D) uterine (fallopian) tube
E) vagina
F) uterus
G) labia minora
Answer: C
Duct that transports a fertilized egg
Duct that transports a fertilized egg
A) mons pubis
B) clitoris
C) ovary
D) uterine (fallopian) tube
E) vagina
F) uterus
G) labia minora
Answer: D
Organ that is the typical site of implantation of a fertilized egg
Organ that is the typical site of implantation of a fertilized egg
A) mons pubis
B) clitoris
C) ovary
D) uterine (fallopian) tube
E) vagina
F) uterus
G) labia minora
Answer: F
Birth canal
Birth canal
A) mons pubis
B) clitoris
C) ovary
D) uterine (fallopian) tube
E) vagina
F) uterus
G) labia minora
Answer: E
Sac of skin found hanging outside the abdominal cavity
Sac of skin found hanging outside the abdominal cavity
A) ductus (vas) deferens
B) penis
C) scrotum
D) seminal vesicles
E) urethra
F) testis
G) prostate
H) ejaculatory duct
Answer: C
Gland that produces a thick, yellowish secretion
Gland that produces a thick, yellowish secretion
A) ductus (vas) deferens
B) penis
C) scrotum
D) seminal vesicles
E) urethra
F) testis
G) prostate
H) ejaculatory duct
Answer: D
Tube that transports either urine or sperm to the exterior of the body
Tube that transports either urine or sperm to the exterior of the body
A) ductus (vas) deferens
B) penis
C) scrotum
D) seminal vesicles
E) urethra
F) testis
G) prostate
H) ejaculatory duct
Answer: E
Organ that produces testosterone
Organ that produces testosterone
A) ductus (vas) deferens
B) penis
C) scrotum
D) seminal vesicles
E) urethra
F) testis
G) prostate
H) ejaculatory duct
Answer: F
Duct connecting epididymis to ejaculatory duct
Duct connecting epididymis to ejaculatory duct
A) ductus (vas) deferens
B) penis
C) scrotum
D) seminal vesicles
E) urethra
F) testis
G) prostate
H) ejaculatory duct
Answer: A
Tiny cell produced by oogenesis
Tiny cell produced by oogenesis
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: E
Functional male gametes
Functional male gametes
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: F
A fertilized secondary oocyte completes meiosis II to form this cell
A fertilized secondary oocyte completes meiosis II to form this cell
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: H
As a result of spermatogenesis, four of these cells are created
As a result of spermatogenesis, four of these cells are created
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: F
Process that creates ova in females
Process that creates ova in females
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: G
Stem cell in females
Stem cell in females
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: A
Process that streamlines spermatids into sperm
Process that streamlines spermatids into sperm
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: K
Cell ruptured from a vesicular (Graafian) follicle in females
Cell ruptured from a vesicular (Graafian) follicle in females
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: C
Stem cell in males
Stem cell in males
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: D
Cell produced during mitosis in females
Cell produced during mitosis in females
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: A
Cells that undergo spermatogenesis in males
Cells that undergo spermatogenesis in males
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: B
Cell released from female's ovary during ovulation
Cell released from female's ovary during ovulation
A) oogonium
B) spermatids
C) secondary oocyte
D) spermatogonium
E) polar body
F) sperm
G) oogenesis
H) ovum
I) secondary oocyte
K) spermiogenesis
Answer: C
Menopause, which ends childbirth ability, is considered to have occurred when a woman:
Menopause, which ends childbirth ability, is considered to have occurred when a woman:
A) misses her first period
B) misses two periods in a row
C) turns 50
D) has gone a year without menstruation
E) has had a hysterectomy
Answer: D
The first menstrual period, which usually occurs at approximately age 13, is called:
The first menstrual period, which usually occurs at approximately age 13, is called:
A) menses
B) menstruation
C) menopause
D) menarche
E) menogen
Answer: D
Male sex chromosomes are represented by:
Male sex chromosomes are represented by:
A) XX
B) XO
C) XY
D) XZ
E) YY
Answer: C
The stage of labor that involves the delivery of the infant is the:
The stage of labor that involves the delivery of the infant is the:
A) dilation stage
B) expulsion stage
C) secretory phase
D) placental stage
E) postpartum stage
Answer: B
Labor is initiated by prostaglandins and __________.
Labor is initiated by prostaglandins and __________.
A) renin
B) relaxin
C) oxytocin
D) progesterone
E) human chorionic gonadotropin
Answer: C
The presence of more oxytocin receptors in the uterus lead to weak, irregular contractions known as:
The presence of more oxytocin receptors in the uterus lead to weak, irregular contractions known as:
A) dystocia
B) Braxton Hicks
C) menopause
D) cryptorchidism
E) C-section
Answer: B
Parturition occurs approximately how many days after a woman's last menstrual cycle:
Parturition occurs approximately how many days after a woman's last menstrual cycle:
A) 180 days
B) 240 days
C) 280 days
D) 315 days
E) 330 days
Answer: C
Parturition is another term for:
Parturition is another term for:
A) menopause
B) menses
C) fertilization
D) menstruation
E) childbirth
Answer: E
The science of (blank) is the study of patterns and diseases and how they are transmitted among individuals in a community.
The science of (blank) is the study of patterns and diseases and how they are transmitted among individuals in a community.
A) microbiology
B) pathology
C) epidemiology
D) dermatology
Answer: C
The study of functional changes associated with aging and disease is called
The study of functional changes associated with aging and disease is called
A) developmental biology
B) endocrinology
C) immunology
D) pathophysiology
Answer: D
Which of the following medical imaging techniques provides cross-sectional images of the body?
Which of the following medical imaging techniques provides cross-sectional images of the body?
A) positron emission tomography
B) ultrasound
C) endoscopy
D) computed tomography
E) radiography
Answer: D
The (blank) system stores minerals and lipids.
The (blank) system stores minerals and lipids.
A) lymphatic
B) circulatory
C) cardiovascular
D) skeletal
Answer: D
The small intestine consists of three parts: it begins with the duodenum which leads to the jejunum, which leads to the ileum. The ileum is (blank) to the duodenum.
The small intestine consists of three parts: it begins with the duodenum which leads to the jejunum, which leads to the ileum. The ileum is (blank) to the duodenum.
A) superior
B) inferior
C) lateral
D) medial
Answer: B
Which of the following basic life processes is/are represented by one cell dividing into two cells?
Which of the following basic life processes is/are represented by one cell dividing into two cells?
A) metabolism
B) differentiation
C) responsiveness
D) reproduction
E) movement
F) growth
Answer: D and F
A decrease in blood glucose levels will stimulate the pancreas to release glucagon which increases glucose levels in the blood. This is an example of a (blank) feedback system.
A decrease in blood glucose levels will stimulate the pancreas to release glucagon which increases glucose levels in the blood. This is an example of a (blank) feedback system.
A) positive
B) negative
C) positive and negative
D) positive or negative
Answer: B
Which of the following are branches of physiology?
Which of the following are branches of physiology?
A) endocrinology
B) developmental biology
C) immunology
D) embryology
E) histology
Answer: A and C
The use of high-frequency sound waves in ultrasound scanning produces an image known as a
The use of high-frequency sound waves in ultrasound scanning produces an image known as a
A) lithogram
B) picture
C) image
D) sonogram
Answer: D
Which organ-system carries lipids from the gastrointestinal tract to blood?
Which organ-system carries lipids from the gastrointestinal tract to blood?
A) urinary system
B) cardiovascular system
C) lymphatic system
D) respiratory system
Answer: C
The building of new proteins from amino acids is an example of
The building of new proteins from amino acids is an example of
A) catabolism
B) anabolism
C) embolism
D) thrombosis
Answer: B
The study to understand how we breathe is called
The study to understand how we breathe is called
A) cardiology
B) biology
C) respiratory physiology
D) anatomy and physiology
Answer: C
If you are outside in the cold, your body temperature may drop causing you to shiver. This is an example of
If you are outside in the cold, your body temperature may drop causing you to shiver. This is an example of
A) negative feedback
B) neither negative or positive feedback
C) both negative and positive feedback
D) positive feedback
Answer: A
Positron emission tomography (PET) is used to
Positron emission tomography (PET) is used to
A) provide three dimensional images of body structures
B) produce high contrast images of soft tissue
C) observe metabolic processes in the body
D) produce images of hard bony structures
Answer: C
Which of the following basic life processes is/are represented by an increase in body height?
Which of the following basic life processes is/are represented by an increase in body height?
A) reproduction
B) metabolism
C) growth
D) responsiveness
E) differentiation
F) movement
Answer: A and C
The efferent pathway refers to
The efferent pathway refers to
A) an effect that changes the controlled condition
B) a feedback system that refers the initial stimulus
C) information flowing to the control center
D) information flowing away from the control center
Answer: D
Which of the following is an example of the study of gross anatomy?
Which of the following is an example of the study of gross anatomy?
A) study of a specific region of the body like the arm or leg
B) study of the skeletal system
C) using an x-ray to determine the presence of a broken bone
D) study of any structure that does not require a microscope
E) all of these
Answer: E
The (blank) system is responsible for protecting the body from disease-causing microorganisms.
The (blank) system is responsible for protecting the body from disease-causing microorganisms.
A) defense
B) integumentary
C) nervous
D) lymphatic
Answer: D
Mammary glands are part of the (blank) system.
Mammary glands are part of the (blank) system.
A) respiratory
B) integumentary
C) reproductive
D) endocrine
Answer: C
In a(n) (blank) feedback system, the response enhances or reinforces the initial stimulus.
In a(n) (blank) feedback system, the response enhances or reinforces the initial stimulus.
A) negative
B) positive
C) neutral
D) opposing
Answer: B
The study to understand the function of nerve cells is called
The study to understand the function of nerve cells is called
A) neurology
B) neurophysiology
C) neurotoxicology
D) nervousness
Answer: B
The ability of the body to sense changes in the environment and respond is called
The ability of the body to sense changes in the environment and respond is called
A) responsiveness
B) sensing
C) reacting
D) shivering
Answer: A
Which medical imaging technique appears to have the most benefit in screening for coronary artery disease?
Which medical imaging technique appears to have the most benefit in screening for coronary artery disease?
A) ultrasound screening
B) endoscopy
C) radiography
D) positron emission tomography
E) computed tomography
Answer: E
Which organ-system contains the prostate, ductus deferens, and epididymis?
Which organ-system contains the prostate, ductus deferens, and epididymis?
A) endocrine system
B) urinary system
C) respiratory system
D) reproductive system
Answer: D
Surface anatomy involves the study of
Surface anatomy involves the study of
A) specific regions of the body
B) structures that can be seen with x-rays
C) structures that can be examined with a microscope
D) surface markings on the body
Answer: D
A homeostatic imbalance
A homeostatic imbalance
A) can be the cause of a disease
B) is caused only by malfunctioning positive feedback systems
C) can only be reversed by negative feedback systems
D) is the result of your genetic makeup only
Answer: A
Which of the following are the most common uses of ultrasound?
Which of the following are the most common uses of ultrasound?
A) to visualize the fetus during pregnancy
B) to visualize broken bones
C) to visualize brain activity
D) to observe blood flow through blood vessels
E) to visualize metabolic processes in the body
Answer: A and D
Which of the following best represents the basic life process of differentiation?
Which of the following best represents the basic life process of differentiation?
A) generation of nerve impulses
B) tissue growth
C) breakdown of large molecules into smaller molecules
D) movement of body parts
E) development of a cell from unspecialized to specialized
Answer: E
Which of the following would be safe to use during pregnancy?
Which of the following would be safe to use during pregnancy?
A) all of the choices are correct
B) positron emission tomography
C) radiography
D) computed tomography
E) ultrasound screening
Answer: E
The examination of body structures that does not require a microscope is called
The examination of body structures that does not require a microscope is called
A) histology
B) systemic anatomy
C) microscopic anatomy
D) gross anatomy
Answer: D
Filling a pleural cavity with blood would affect (blank) function.
Filling a pleural cavity with blood would affect (blank) function.
A) heart
B) bladder
C) lung
D) small intestine
Answer: C
Which is correctly paired?
Which is correctly paired?
A) antebrachial; arm
B) mental; forehead
C) inguinal; hollow behind knee
D) axillary; armpit
Answer: D
Pain reported in the right inguinal region could indicate a problem with the
Pain reported in the right inguinal region could indicate a problem with the
A) stomach
B) liver
C) appendix
D) spleen
Answer: C
Which of the following is a symptom?
Which of the following is a symptom?
A) paralysis
B) swelling
C) fever
D) anxiety
Answer: D
In response to elevated blood pressure, a decrease in heart rate returns blood pressure back to normal. This is an example of
In response to elevated blood pressure, a decrease in heart rate returns blood pressure back to normal. This is an example of
A) disorder
B) reinforcing the initial stimulus
C) negative feedback
D) positive feedback
Answer: C
Choose the correct order for a feedback system.
Choose the correct order for a feedback system.
A) stimulus, effector, receptor, control center, response
B) stimulus, receptor, control center, effector, response
C) stimulus, effector, control center, receptor, response
D) stimulus, control center, receptor, effector, response
Answer: B
Stem cells within red bone marrow capable of forming several types of blood cell best represents
Stem cells within red bone marrow capable of forming several types of blood cell best represents
A) metabolism
B) movement
C) growth
D) differentiation
Answer: D
Linking together amino acids to form a protein chain is an example of
Linking together amino acids to form a protein chain is an example of
A) differentiation
B) catabolism
C) anabolism
D) growth
Answer: C
Thigh bones lengthen during childhood as the amount of mineral deposits between bone cells increases. This best represents
Thigh bones lengthen during childhood as the amount of mineral deposits between bone cells increases. This best represents
A) differentiation
B) movement
C) responsiveness
D) growth
Answer: D
The spleen, thymus, and tonsils belong to the
The spleen, thymus, and tonsils belong to the
A) digestive system
B) integumentary system
C) endocrine system
D) lymphatic system and immunity
Answer: D
Examining the electrical activity within the heart using an electrocardiogram (ECG) involves
Examining the electrical activity within the heart using an electrocardiogram (ECG) involves
A) neurophysiology
B) gross anatomy
C) cardiovascular physiology
D) regional anatomy
Answer: C
Studying together the structures of the lungs, bronchi, trachea, and nasal cavity through dissection involves
Studying together the structures of the lungs, bronchi, trachea, and nasal cavity through dissection involves
A) regional anatomy
B) histology
C) systemic anatomy
D) respiratory physiology
Answer: C
Which imaging technique would be the most dangerous for a patient with bridge-work in his mouth, metal screws in his hip, or a pacemaker?
Which imaging technique would be the most dangerous for a patient with bridge-work in his mouth, metal screws in his hip, or a pacemaker?
A) ultrasound
B) magnetic resonance imaging
C) radiography
D) position emission tomography
Answer: B
Which of these imaging techniques is the safest?
Which of these imaging techniques is the safest?
A) ultrasound
B) positron emission tomography
C) endoscopy
D) radiography
Answer: A
Which plane would pass through only one eye?
Which plane would pass through only one eye?
A) parasagittal
B) transverse
C) frontal
D) midsagittal
Answer: A
The breastbone is (blank) to the spine.
The breastbone is (blank) to the spine.
A) inferior
B) posterior
C) anterior
D) superior
Answer: C
The belly button is (blank) to the breastbone.
The belly button is (blank) to the breastbone.
A) superior
B) inferior
C) posterior
D) anterior
Answer: B
Lying down and gazing up at the night stars involved being in the
Lying down and gazing up at the night stars involved being in the
A) supine position
B) prone position
C) in anatomical position
D) erect position
Answer: A
Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous are terms used to describe
Epithelial, connective, muscle, and nervous are terms used to describe
A) cells
B) molecules
C) tissues
D) organs
Answer: C
Choose the arrangement that correctly lists the levels of structural organization from smallest to largest.
Choose the arrangement that correctly lists the levels of structural organization from smallest to largest.
A) organismal, system, organ, tissue, cellular, chemical
B) chemical, cellular, organ, tissue, system, organismal
C) cellular, chemical, tissue, organ, system, organismal
D) chemical, cellular, tissue, organ, system, organismal
Answer: D
Which of the following describes, covalent bonds?
Which of the following describes, covalent bonds?
A) forms when electrons are lost or gained
B) most common chemical bond in the body
C) can form between atoms of the same element
D) can be polar or non-polar
E) forms when electrons are shared
Answer: B, C, D, and E
Which type of lipid is used to produce triglycerides and phospholipids
Which type of lipid is used to produce triglycerides and phospholipids
A) eicosanoids
B) cholesterol
C) fatty acids
D) steroids
Answer: C
Which of the following is TRUE regarding enzymes?
Which of the following is TRUE regarding enzymes?
A) their shape can vary and still be active
B) they raise the activation energy of a chemical reaction
C) they are not affected by temperature or pH changes
D) they catalyze specific reactions
Answer: D
Ions are called (blank) because they carry an electrical charge.
Ions are called (blank) because they carry an electrical charge.
Answer: electrolytes
The number of protons and neutrons in an atom is called the (blank).
The number of protons and neutrons in an atom is called the (blank).
Answer: mass number
Thymine and cytosine are single-ring bases called (blank).
Thymine and cytosine are single-ring bases called (blank).
Answer: pyrimidines
Which of these are considered isomers of each other?
Which of these are considered isomers of each other?
A) glucose, fructose, galactose
B) glucose, fructose, sucrose
C) galactose, fructose, sucrose
D) glucose, galactose, sucrose
Answer: A
The energy required to start a chemical reaction is called the (blank) energy.
The energy required to start a chemical reaction is called the (blank) energy.
Answer: activation
Which of the following substances would be considered a salt?
Which of the following substances would be considered a salt?
A) HCl
B) H2O
C) KOH
D) CaCO3
Answer: D
Which of these would be classified as a protein?
Which of these would be classified as a protein?
A) cellulose
B) phospholipid
C) enzymes
D) cholesterol
Answer: C
Fatty acids with double bonds between carbons are called
Fatty acids with double bonds between carbons are called
A) cholesterol
B) unsaturated
C) saturated
D) polysaturated
Answer: B
The enzyme lipase would break down which of the following?
The enzyme lipase would break down which of the following?
A) ATP
B) carbohydrates
C) proteins
D) triglycerides
Answer: D
Oils
Oils
A) are unsaturated fats and solid at room temperature
B) are unsaturated fats and liquid at room temperature
C) are saturated fats and solid at room temperature
D) are saturated fats and liquid at room temperature
Answer: B
The bonds between two identical atoms are always polar covalent bonds.
The bonds between two identical atoms are always polar covalent bonds.
A) True
B) False
Answer: B
If chlorine has an atomic mass of 35, then 1 mole of chlorine would equal
If chlorine has an atomic mass of 35, then 1 mole of chlorine would equal
A) 1 g
B) 35 g
C) 17 g
D) 18 g
Answer: B
When a macromolecule is broken down into smaller molecules, a molecule of (blank) is added.
When a macromolecule is broken down into smaller molecules, a molecule of (blank) is added.
A) water
B) oxygen
C) acid
D) sugar
Answer: A
Which atoms make up a carbohydrate?
Which atoms make up a carbohydrate?
A) hydrogen, oxygen, carbon
B) hydrogen, sulfur, carbon
C) hydrogen, nitrogen, carbon
D) hydrogen, oxygen, calcium
Answer: A
In DNA, guanine always pairs with
In DNA, guanine always pairs with
A) adenine
B) guanine
C) cytosine
D) thymine
Answer: C
In an oxidation reaction, an atom will lose a(n)
In an oxidation reaction, an atom will lose a(n)
A) proton
B) electron
C) nucleus
D) neutron
Answer: B
ATP is directly produced from the breakdown of
ATP is directly produced from the breakdown of
A) triose
B) glucose
C) maltose
D) cellulose
Answer: B
Which of the following is an example of the secondary structure found in proteins?
Which of the following is an example of the secondary structure found in proteins?
A) alpha helix and beta pleated sheet
B) a tripeptide chain
C) peptide bond
D) sequence of amino acids
Answer: A
Molecules that have identical molecular formulas but different atom arrangements are called
Molecules that have identical molecular formulas but different atom arrangements are called
A) isoners
B) hydrolytic
C) isotopes
D) inorganic
Answer: A
The structure of DNA is called
The structure of DNA is called
A) a double helix
B) a helix
C) a triple helix
D) a globular helix
Answer: A
Which simple sugar is the body's main source of chemical energy?
Which simple sugar is the body's main source of chemical energy?
A) cellulose
B) starch
C) maltose
D) glucose
Answer: D
Steroids differ from other lipids because they
Steroids differ from other lipids because they
A) are composed of glycerol only
B) are composed of carbon and hydrogen only
C) will mix with water
D) are composed of rings of carbon atoms
Answer: D
Which of the following is NOT a property of carbon?
Which of the following is NOT a property of carbon?
A) the ability to form polar bonds with hydrogen
B) the ability to form rings
C) ability to form covalent bonds
D) the ability to form straight or branched chains
Answer: A
The formation of ATP in a muscle cell is an (blank) reaction, whereas using ATP for contraction is an (blank) reaction.
The formation of ATP in a muscle cell is an (blank) reaction, whereas using ATP for contraction is an (blank) reaction.
A) exergonic; endergonic
B) aerobic; anaerobic
C) catabolic; anabolic
D) endergonic; exergonic
Answer: D
All of the following react to form ATP in a muscle cell, EXCEPT
All of the following react to form ATP in a muscle cell, EXCEPT
A) ADP
B) ATPase
C) energy
D) phosphate group
Answer: B
Keratin and collagen are classified functionally and structurally as (blank) proteins
Keratin and collagen are classified functionally and structurally as (blank) proteins
A) contractile and globular
B) structural and globular
C) structural and fibrous
D) contractile and fibrous
Answer: C
How can the amino acids tyrosine and lysine form a dipeptide?
How can the amino acids tyrosine and lysine form a dipeptide?
A) Water is removed as the side chains of tyrosine and lysine join together.
B) Water is removed as the carboxyl group of tyrosine joins the amino group of lysine.
C) Water is added as the carboxyl group of tyrosine joins the amino base group of lysine.
D) Water is added as the side chains of tyrosine and lysine join together.
Answer: B
Which of the following is a characteristic that facilitates the function of phospholipids?
Which of the following is a characteristic that facilitates the function of phospholipids?
A) hydrophobic tails lack double bonds
B) amphipathic
C) 2:1 ratio of hydrogen to oxygen
D) saturated fatty acids
Answer: B
Which of the following could be produced by combining one glycerol molecule and three fatty acid molecules?
Which of the following could be produced by combining one glycerol molecule and three fatty acid molecules?
A) fat
B) prostaglandin
C) phospholipid
D) cholesterol
Answer: A
Which of the following is an example of an exchange reaction?
Which of the following is an example of an exchange reaction?
A) AgNO3 + KCL > AgCl + KNO3
B) H+ + HCO3- > H2 CO3
C) Na + Cl > NaCl
D) 2H2O > 2H2 + O2
Answer: A
Which of the following best describes chemical energy?
Which of the following best describes chemical energy?
A) an unopened soda can
B) water that is held by a dam
C) a moving vehicle
D) a battery
E) walking
Answer: D
Which of the following are double-ringed purines?
Which of the following are double-ringed purines?
A) adenine and cytosine
B) cytosine and guanine
C) adenine and guanine
D) adenine and thymine
Answer: C
Which pentose sugar is found in DNA?
Which pentose sugar is found in DNA?
A) deoxyribose
B) ribose
C) glucose
D) lactose
Answer: A
Compounds that have the general formula CH2O are
Compounds that have the general formula CH2O are
A) proteins
B) carbohydrates
C) lipids
D) nucleotides
Answer: B
One characteristic shared by all organic molecules is
One characteristic shared by all organic molecules is
A) they all have a carbon skeleton
B) they all have isomers
C) the formation of rings
D) that they all contain sulfur
Answer: A
Which of the following used as a basis for the pH scale?
Which of the following used as a basis for the pH scale?
A) the concentration of OH- in moles per liter
B) the concentration of H+ in moles per liter
C) the percentage of hydrogen bonds in moles per liter
D) the amount of water in a solution
Answer: B
In a suspension, the solutes will eventually
In a suspension, the solutes will eventually
A) settle out
B) blend
C) disintegrate
D) evaporate
Answer: A
If two types of compounds found in the same solution are not bonded to each other, the solution is called a
If two types of compounds found in the same solution are not bonded to each other, the solution is called a
A) colloid
B) concentration
C) suspension
D) mixture
Answer: D
Which of the following would affect the speed of a chemical reaction?
Which of the following would affect the speed of a chemical reaction?
A) temperature
B) presence of a catalyst
C) increased concentration of the reactants
D) all of these
Answer: D
Which of the following is considered a molecule and a compound?
Which of the following is considered a molecule and a compound?
A) H2
B) O2
C) N2
D) H2O
Answer: D
Ionic compounds normally exist in which physical state?
Ionic compounds normally exist in which physical state?
A) liquid
B) mixture
C) solid
D) gas
Answer: C
Which of the following is an anion?
Which of the following is an anion?
A) NaCl
B) K+
C) OH-
D) S
Answer: C
The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of
The atomic number of an element is determined by the number of
A) protons
B) protons plus neutrons
C) neutrons
D) electrons
Answer: A
To charge an atom into an atom of a different element, you would need to change the number of
To charge an atom into an atom of a different element, you would need to change the number of
A) neutrons
B) electron shells
C) protons
D) electrons in the valance shell
Answer: C
There are 921 naturally occurring elements on Earth. How many of these elements are normally found in the human body?
There are 921 naturally occurring elements on Earth. How many of these elements are normally found in the human body?
A) 8
B) 4
C) 14
D) 26
Answer: D
Lysosomes help destroy worn-out organelles by the process of (blank).
Lysosomes help destroy worn-out organelles by the process of (blank).
A) autolysis
B) autophagy
C) apoptosis
D) acrosomy
Answer: B
Cells have the ability to divide an unlimited number of times.
Cells have the ability to divide an unlimited number of times.
A) True
B) Flase
Answer: B
Which of the following choices shows the correct order of cell diameters, from smallest to largest?
Which of the following choices shows the correct order of cell diameters, from smallest to largest?
A) red blood cell, sperm, oocyte
B) oocyte, sperm, red blood cell
C) sperm, red blood cell, oocyte
D) red blood cell, oocyte, sperm
Answer: C
The enzymes that splice the introns out of the initial mRNA strands are (blank).
The enzymes that splice the introns out of the initial mRNA strands are (blank).
A) proteasomes
B) messenger RNA molecules
C) small nuclear ribonucleoproteins
D) RNA polymerases
Answer: C
Which of the following would be found in the nucleus?
Which of the following would be found in the nucleus?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
B) ribosomes
C) nucleolus
D) DNA
E) cytosol
F) chromatin
Answer: B, C, D, and F
The backbone of a phospholipid molecule is a (blank) molecule, which is attached to two hydrophobic tails and a phosphate head group.
The backbone of a phospholipid molecule is a (blank) molecule, which is attached to two hydrophobic tails and a phosphate head group.
Answer: glycerol
Carrier proteins are also known as (blank) and can move polar molecules, like glucose, across the plasma membrane.
Carrier proteins are also known as (blank) and can move polar molecules, like glucose, across the plasma membrane.
Answer: transporters
The (blank) that are produced at the end of meiosis are genetically unique; they are not the same as the parent cell or identical to each other.
The (blank) that are produced at the end of meiosis are genetically unique; they are not the same as the parent cell or identical to each other.
Answer: gamete; sperm; egg; oocyte; haploid cells
Identification and discovery of new genes is the focus of (blank) research.
Identification and discovery of new genes is the focus of (blank) research.
Answer: genomics
Where would you find the rough endoplasmic reticulum of a cell?
Where would you find the rough endoplasmic reticulum of a cell?
A) on the plasma membrane
B) in the cytosol
C) inside the nucleus
Answer: B
If a codon on an mRNA molecule is ACG, the anticodon that binds to it will be
If a codon on an mRNA molecule is ACG, the anticodon that binds to it will be
A) TCG
B) ACG
C) TCG
D) UGC
Answer: D
Pancreatitis is an acute inflammation of the pancreas, caused by the premature activation of digestive enzymes that then digest the pancreatic tissue and cause severe homeostatic imbalances. These enzymes are often found in which part of the cell?
Pancreatitis is an acute inflammation of the pancreas, caused by the premature activation of digestive enzymes that then digest the pancreatic tissue and cause severe homeostatic imbalances. These enzymes are often found in which part of the cell?
A) lysosomes
B) nucleus
C) cytoplasm
D) mitochondria
Answer: A
The medical branch that deals with treating the elderly and their associated medical problems is known as (blank).
The medical branch that deals with treating the elderly and their associated medical problems is known as (blank).
A) oncology
B) pediatrics
C) geriatrics
D) neonatology
Answer: C
Your patient has a benign tumor in her head and is complaining of headaches of increasing severity. You find that the humor has grown in recent months. Which of the following could be occurring in this tumor?
Your patient has a benign tumor in her head and is complaining of headaches of increasing severity. You find that the humor has grown in recent months. Which of the following could be occurring in this tumor?
A) atrophy
B) anaplasia
C) hyperplasia
Answer: C
Sodium ions (Na+) move across the plasma membrane (blank).
Sodium ions (Na+) move across the plasma membrane (blank).
A) towards negatively-charged areas
B) in unpredictable directions
C) both towards negatively-charged and positively-charged areas equally
D) towards positively-charged areas
Answer: A
Cells that contain long extensions and conduct electrical impulses are the (blank).
Cells that contain long extensions and conduct electrical impulses are the (blank).
A) red blood cells
B) epithelial cells
C) muscle cells
D) nerve cells
Answer: D
A nucleosome is (blank).
A nucleosome is (blank).
A) an opening in the nuclear envelope
B) a condensed chromosome
C) DNA wrapped twice around a histone
D) the entire genome
Answer: C
Calcium ions are typically kept at very low internal concentrations in cardiac muscle cells; however, calcium is stored in specialized organelles so that it is available to trigger contractions on a regular basis. How must calcium be transported out of the cytoplasm and into these organelles?
Calcium ions are typically kept at very low internal concentrations in cardiac muscle cells; however, calcium is stored in specialized organelles so that it is available to trigger contractions on a regular basis. How must calcium be transported out of the cytoplasm and into these organelles?
A) active transport
B) facilitated diffusion
C) passive diffusion
D) phagocytosis
Answer: A
Patients may be treated for cancer through a variety of methods. Which of the following may be used for treating a cancer patient?
Patients may be treated for cancer through a variety of methods. Which of the following may be used for treating a cancer patient?
A) anesthetics
B) diuretics
C) antibiotics
D) chemotherapy
E) radiation
Answer: D and E
Components of the cytoskeleton include which of the following?
Components of the cytoskeleton include which of the following?
A) cytoplasm
B) microtubules
C) plasma membrane
D) intermediate filaments
E) microfilaments
F) mitochondria
Answer: B, D, and E
Translation occurs in the (blank).
Translation occurs in the (blank).
A) cytoplasm
B) nucleus
C) Golgi complex
D) lysosome
Answer: A
Transporters are a type of integral protein also known as a(n) (blank).
Transporters are a type of integral protein also known as a(n) (blank).
A) linker
B) carrier
C) enzyme
D) receptor
Answer: B
Chickens are eukaryotic and sexually-reproducing, much like humans. If a chicken skin cell has 78 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would an unfertilized chicken egg contain?
Chickens are eukaryotic and sexually-reproducing, much like humans. If a chicken skin cell has 78 chromosomes, how many chromosomes would an unfertilized chicken egg contain?
A) 156
B) 117
C) 78
D) 39
Answer: D
The LMNA gene encodes specialized intermediate filaments that are a critical part of support for the nucleus. A mutation in this gene causes improperly-formed intermediate filaments. Which of the following would be a likely result of this mutation?
The LMNA gene encodes specialized intermediate filaments that are a critical part of support for the nucleus. A mutation in this gene causes improperly-formed intermediate filaments. Which of the following would be a likely result of this mutation?
A) an abnormally-shaped nuclear envelope
B) a reduced volume of cytoplasm
C) a decrease in the amount of chromatin
D) an increased rate of cell division
Answer: A
Cancers are most often named based on the region of the body in which they form; therefore, you would expect the (blank) to be the origin of a tumor whose name includes neuro.
Cancers are most often named based on the region of the body in which they form; therefore, you would expect the (blank) to be the origin of a tumor whose name includes neuro.
Answer: brain
The breakdown of a muscle in a paraplegic who cannot move his legs is known as
The breakdown of a muscle in a paraplegic who cannot move his legs is known as
A) anaplasia
B) atrophy
C) apoptosis
D) angiogenesis
Answer: B
Individual oocytes in a female
Individual oocytes in a female
A) have the diploid number of chromosomes
B) are only produced after mitosis is complete
C) include the chromosome that determines the offspring's sex
D) contain one chromosome from each homologous pair
Answer: D
The complete cell cycle includes
The complete cell cycle includes
A) prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase
B) mitosis and cytokinesis
C) interphase and the mitotic phase
D) G1, S, and G2
Answer: C
Structures involved in movement of the cell include which of the following?
Structures involved in movement of the cell include which of the following?
A) villi and microvilli, which are composed of microfilaments
B) cilia and flagella, which are composed of microtubules
C) cilia and flagella, which are composed of microfilaments
D) villi, and microvilli, which are composed of microtubules
Answer: B
Cytoplasm is made of
Cytoplasm is made of
A) cytosol + organelles
B) organelles + dissolved solutes
C) organelles + water
D) water + dissolved solutes
Answer: A
The sodium-potassium pump moves
The sodium-potassium pump moves
A) sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell via active transport
B) sodium into the cell and potassium out of the cell via active transport
C) sodium into the cell and potassium out of the cell via facilitated diffusion
D) sodium out of the cell and potassium into the cell via facilitated diffusion
Answer: A
Which of the following is an example of a transport process that uses kinetic energy?
Which of the following is an example of a transport process that uses kinetic energy?
A) exocytosis
B) pinocytosis
C) active transport
D) simple diffusion
Answer: D
The heredity unit of a eukaryotic cell are
The heredity unit of a eukaryotic cell are
A) organelles, and they are found in the cytoplasm
B) genes, and they are found in the cytoplasm
C) organelles, and they are found in the nucleus
D) genes, and they are found in the nucleus
Answer: D
Elevated blood sugar levels result from uncontrolled diabetes. How might this affect aging?
Elevated blood sugar levels result from uncontrolled diabetes. How might this affect aging?
A) inability to regenerate damaged tissue as a consequence of autoimmune response
B) widespread oxidative damage due to increased free radicals
C) reduced cell division cycles resulting from telomere erosion in pancreatic cells
D) tissue stiffening and loss of elasticity due to cross-linking between protein molecules
Answer: D
Which of the following are actively transported through nuclear pores?
Which of the following are actively transported through nuclear pores?
A) nucleoli
B) RNA strands
C) ions
D) complete ribosomes
E) chromatids
Answer: B
The structure of the outer nuclear envelope closely resembles which organelle in a cell?
The structure of the outer nuclear envelope closely resembles which organelle in a cell?
A) lysosome
B) mitochondrion
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
D) rough endoplasmic reticulum
E) golgi complex
Answer: D
Cell shape is related to its function. The function of a cell with long extensions would be
Cell shape is related to its function. The function of a cell with long extensions would be
A) to narrow or widen a passage
B) movement
C) to increase surface area
D) secretion
E) to conduct information over a great distance
Answer: E
Which of the following cell shapes apply to red blood cells?
Which of the following cell shapes apply to red blood cells?
A) columnar
B) disc shaped
C) elongated
D) star shaped
E) flat
Answer: B
How many times can a cell divide?
How many times can a cell divide?
A) it depends on the cell's membrane composition
B) it depends on the specific type of cell
C) there is no upper limit to the number of times
D) a person is born with all the cells they will ever have
Answer: B
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of nerve cells?
Which of the following is a characteristic feature of nerve cells?
A) ability to contract and relax
B) microvilli on the lumenal surface
C) long cellular extensions
D) concave cellular shape
Answer: C
The type of RNA that directs protein synthesis is
The type of RNA that directs protein synthesis is
A) messenger RNA
B) ribosomal RNA
C) small nuclear RNA
D) transfer RNA
Answer: A
The process of translation occurs in
The process of translation occurs in
A) the Golgi complex
B) ribosomes found in the cytoplasm
C) ribosomes found in the nucleoli
D) the nucleus
E) lysosomes
Answer: B
Molecules tend to move across the plasma membrane
Molecules tend to move across the plasma membrane
A) both up and down their concentration gradients equally
B) in unpredictable directions
C) up their concentration gradients
D) down their concentration gradients
Answer: D
Which molecule makes up the majority of the plasma membrane?
Which molecule makes up the majority of the plasma membrane?
A) protein
B) glycoproteins
C) glycolipids
D) phospholipids
E) cholesterol
Answer: D
What are the three main parts of a human cell?
What are the three main parts of a human cell?
A) mitochondria, plasma membrane, chromatin
B) plasma membrane, cytoplasm, nucleus
C) cell wall, mitochondria, chromosomes
D) cytoplasm, cell wall, DNA
Answer: B
The proper functioning of the body's immune system depends in part on the activity of the
The proper functioning of the body's immune system depends in part on the activity of the
(A) thyroid gland
(B) thymus gland
(C) parathyroid gland
(D) adrenal gland
Answer: B
Melatonin is secreted by the
Melatonin is secreted by the
(A) pancreas
(B) thymus gland
(C) pineal gland
(D) pituitary gland
Answer: C
Hormones that influence the secondary sex characteristics may be produced by both the
Hormones that influence the secondary sex characteristics may be produced by both the
(A) pancreas and pineal gland
(B) thyroid and parathyroid glands
(C) thymus and pituitary glands
(D) adrenal cortex and reproductive organs
Answer: D
The concentration of sodium and potassium ions in the blood and fluid is regulated by hormones known as
The concentration of sodium and potassium ions in the blood and fluid is regulated by hormones known as
(A) glucocorticoids
(B) androgens
(C) adrenergic hormones
(D) mineralocorticoids
Answer: D
The hormones of the adrenal medulla complement the action of the
The hormones of the adrenal medulla complement the action of the
(A) sensory nervous system
(B) central nervous system
(C) sympathetic nervous system
(D) external nervous system
Answer: C
The two major portions of the adrenal gland are the
The two major portions of the adrenal gland are the
(A) medulla and cortex
(B) exocrine and endocrine
(C) renal and subrenal
(D) posterior and anterior portions
Answer: A
The large exocrine and endocrine gland located in the abdominal cavity is the
The large exocrine and endocrine gland located in the abdominal cavity is the
(A) pineal gland
(B) thymus gland
(C) pancreas
(D) thyroid gland
Answer: C
In patients with diabetes mellitus
In patients with diabetes mellitus
(A) insufficient glucose enters the cells
(B) the medulla of the adrenal gland is damaged
(C) progesterone is not produced by the placenta
(D) the hypothalamus is nonfunctional
Answer: A
The parathyroid glands are located close to the
The parathyroid glands are located close to the
(A) pancreas
(B) lower abdominal cavity
(C) brain
(D) larynx
Answer: D
The hormone antagonistic to insulin is
The hormone antagonistic to insulin is
(A) FSH
(B) glucagon
(C) vasopressin
(D) estrogen
Answer: B
The symptoms of diabetes mellitus may include all the following except
The symptoms of diabetes mellitus may include all the following except
(A) frequent urination
(B) excessive thirst
(C) high glucose content of the urine
(D) abnormal mineral absorption
Answer: D
Calcitonin and the parathyroid hormone both control the level of
Calcitonin and the parathyroid hormone both control the level of
(A) pituitary hormones in the blood
(B) glucose in the blood
(C) thymosins in the blood
(D) calcium in the blood
Answer: D
Graves' disease can result from an excess of
Graves' disease can result from an excess of
(A) calcium in the blood
(B) thyroxin in the blood
(C) catecholamines in the respiratory passageways
(D) glucagon in the pancreas
Answer: B
Symptoms of cretinism include
Symptoms of cretinism include
(A) excessive urination and thirst
(B) electrolyte imbalance in the body
(C) stunted growth and thickened facial features
(D) depressed calcium absorption in the digestive tract
Answer: C
In order for the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine
In order for the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine
(A) iodine must be available
(B) carbohydrate molecules must be available
(C) calcium levels must be low
(D) iron levels must be low
Answer: A
The thyroid gland is located
The thyroid gland is located
(A) within the brain
(B) in the lower abdominal cavity
(C) near the larynx
(D) behind the spleen
Answer: C
The hormone responsible for stimulating contractions of the uterus is known as
The hormone responsible for stimulating contractions of the uterus is known as
(A) insulin
(B) UCH
(C) glucagon
(D) oxytocin
Answer: D
The target tissue of ACTH is the
The target tissue of ACTH is the
(A) thymus gland
(B) medulla of the adrenal gland
(C) cortex of the adrenal gland
(D) beta cells of the pancreas
Answer: C
In the female body, the luteinizing hormone
In the female body, the luteinizing hormone
(A) stimulates TSH production
(B) regulates mineral metabolism in the body
(C) stimulates uterine contractions
(D) acts to promote progesterone production
Answer: D
The neurohypophysis is another name for the
The neurohypophysis is another name for the
(A) posterior lobe of the pituitary gland
(B) medulla of the kidney
(C) follicle that secrets estrogens
(D) placenta
Answer: A
The over secretion of HGH in adults may result in the condition called
The over secretion of HGH in adults may result in the condition called
(A) diabetes mellitus
(B) acromegaly
(C) Addison's disease
(D) Cushing's disease
Answer: B
All the following hormones are produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland except
All the following hormones are produced by the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland except
(A) HGH
(B) TSH
(C) prolactin
(D) insulin
Answer: D
The pituitary gland lies in the
The pituitary gland lies in the
(A) abdominal cavity
(B) inferior aspect of the brain
(C) along the femoral artery
(D) in the tissues of the neck
Answer: B
Hormones may consist of all of the following except
Hormones may consist of all of the following except
(A) steroids
(B) proteins
(C) carbohydrates
(D) amines
Answer: C
The products of the body's endocrine glands are
The products of the body's endocrine glands are
(A) hormones
(B) enzymes
(C) minerals
(D) ions
Answer: A
The hormone produced by the placenta that causes the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis to relax, widen, and become more flexible to ease birth passage is called:
The hormone produced by the placenta that causes the pelvic ligaments and pubic symphysis to relax, widen, and become more flexible to ease birth passage is called:
A) renin
B) relaxin
C) progesterone
D) chorion
E) gonadotropin
Answer: B
All the organ systems are laid down, at least in rudimentary form, and the embryo looks distinctly human by the __________ of embryonic development.
All the organ systems are laid down, at least in rudimentary form, and the embryo looks distinctly human by the __________ of embryonic development.
A) first week
B) second week
C) fourth week
D) eighth week
E) twelfth week
Answer: D
The placenta is usually functioning to deliver nutrients and oxygen to, and remove waste from, the embryonic blood by the __________ of pregnancy.
The placenta is usually functioning to deliver nutrients and oxygen to, and remove waste from, the embryonic blood by the __________ of pregnancy.
A) first week
B) second week
C) third week
D) fourth week
E) fifth week
Answer: C
The fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus is the:
The fluid-filled sac surrounding the fetus is the:
A) amnion
B) placenta
C) chorionic villi
D) umbilical cord
E) mesoderm
Answer: A
The primary germ layer that gives rise to the mucosae and associated glands is the:
The primary germ layer that gives rise to the mucosae and associated glands is the:
A) ectoderm
B) blastocyst
C) mesoderm
D) endoderm
E) morula
Answer: D
The tiny ball of 16 cells found freely floating in the uterine cavity is called a:
The tiny ball of 16 cells found freely floating in the uterine cavity is called a:
A) blastocyte
B) zygote
C) morula
D) placenta
E) trophoblast
Answer: C
A fertilized egg is known as a:
A fertilized egg is known as a:
A) primary oocyte
B) zygote
C) morula
D) blastocyte
E) secondary oocyte
Answer: B
For a sperm cell to fertilize an ovum, sexual intercourse must occur no more than __________ hours before ovulation.
For a sperm cell to fertilize an ovum, sexual intercourse must occur no more than __________ hours before ovulation.
A) 12
B) 24
C) 48
D) 72
E) 90
Answer: C
From fertilization to week 8 of pregnancy, the conceptus is called:
From fertilization to week 8 of pregnancy, the conceptus is called:
A) a fetus
B) an embryo
C) a baby
D) a zygote
E) a morula
Answer: B
The clusters of specific glands that produce milk when a woman is lactating are called:
The clusters of specific glands that produce milk when a woman is lactating are called:
A) lactiferous ducts
B) areolar glands
C) mammary glands
D) alveolar glands
E) lactating glands
Answer: D
The mammary glands are:
The mammary glands are:
A) modified ceruminous glands
B) modified sebaceous glands
C) modified sweat glands in both males and females
D) modified lacrimal glands
E) modified sweat glands in females only
Answer: C
The corpus luteum is a special glandular structure of the ovaries that primarily produces:
The corpus luteum is a special glandular structure of the ovaries that primarily produces:
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) testosterone
D) interstitial cell-stimulating hormone
E) luteinizing hormone
Answer: B
Which one of the following is not one of the secondary sex characteristics in young women:
Which one of the following is not one of the secondary sex characteristics in young women:
A) enlargement of the accessory organs of reproduction
B) breast development
C) appearance of axillary and pubic hair
D) decreased fat deposits beneath the skin
E) widening and lightening of the pelvis
Answer: D
Which one of the following is not true of the proliferative state of the menstrual cycle:
Which one of the following is not true of the proliferative state of the menstrual cycle:
A) it is stimulated by rising estrogen levels
B) the basal layer of the endometrium regenerates
C) glands are formed in the endometrium
D) endometrial blood supply is increased
E) the endometrium becomes thin and shiny in appearance
Answer: E
Days 15-28 of the uterine (menstrual) cycle are known as:
Days 15-28 of the uterine (menstrual) cycle are known as:
A) the menstrual phase
B) the secretory phase
C) menses
D) the proliferative phase
E) implantation
Answer: B
The uterine (menstrual) cycle is:
The uterine (menstrual) cycle is:
A) 7 days long
B) 14 days long
C) 28 days long
D) 40 days long
E) 60 days long
Answer: C
The hormone responsible for ovulation is:
The hormone responsible for ovulation is:
A) estrogen
B) progesterone
C) follicle-stimulating hormone
D) luteinizing hormone
E) adrenocorticotropic hormone
Answer: D
Which of the following cells could be fertilized:
Which of the following cells could be fertilized:
A) polar body
B) primary oocyte
C) secondary oocyte
D) oogonia
E) corpus luteum
Answer: C
Females are born with a supply of approximately 2 million:
Females are born with a supply of approximately 2 million:
A) ova
B) secondary oocytes
C) primary oocytes
D) polar bodies
E) oogonia
Answer: C
The inner mucosal layer of the uterus that is sloughed off approximately every 28 days is called the:
The inner mucosal layer of the uterus that is sloughed off approximately every 28 days is called the:
A) endometrium
B) myometrium
C) perimetrium
D) epimetrium
E) hypometrium
Answer: A
During oogenesis, an oogonium directly gives rise to:
During oogenesis, an oogonium directly gives rise to:
A) an ovum
B) a primary oocyte
C) a secondary oocyte
D) a first polar body
E) a second polar body
Answer: B
The external female structure that corresponds to the male penis is the:
The external female structure that corresponds to the male penis is the:
A) cervix
B) vagina
C) clitoris
D) perineum
E) labia majora
Answer: C
Which layer of the uterus serves as the site of implantation:
Which layer of the uterus serves as the site of implantation:
A) fundus
B) cervix
C) myometrium
D) endometrium
E) perimetrium
Answer: D
The superior rounded region of the uterus above the entrance of the uterine tubes is called the:
The superior rounded region of the uterus above the entrance of the uterine tubes is called the:
A) body
B) fundus
C) cervix
D) corpus
E) mons pubis
Answer: B
The process of ovulation occurs in females approximately every:
The process of ovulation occurs in females approximately every:
A) 7 days
B) 14 days
C) 28 days
D) 36 days
E) 48 days
Answer: C
The process by which a mature egg is ejected from the ovary is called:
The process by which a mature egg is ejected from the ovary is called:
A) ejaculation
B) menses
C) fertilization
D) ovulation
E) erection
Answer: D
Fertilization usually occurs in the:
Fertilization usually occurs in the:
A) ovary
B) Graafian follicle
C) uterine (fallopian) tubes
D) uterus
E) vagina
Answer: C
Which one of the following is NOT one of the secondary sex characteristics typical of males:
Which one of the following is NOT one of the secondary sex characteristics typical of males:
A) deepening voice
B) increased growth of body hair
C) enlargement of skeletal muscle mass
D) increased sex drive
E) thickening of bones
Answer: D
The entire process of spermatogenesis takes approximately:
The entire process of spermatogenesis takes approximately:
A) 25-50 days
B) 64-72 days
C) 120 days
D) 1 year
E) 15 years
Answer: B
The process in which sperm are streamlined into a head, midpiece, and tail is called:
The process in which sperm are streamlined into a head, midpiece, and tail is called:
A) spermatogenesis
B) acrosomal reaction
C) oogenesis
D) spermiogenesis
E) ovulation
Answer: D
Each spermatid and ovum have:
Each spermatid and ovum have:
A) 23 pairs of chromosomes
B) 23 chromosomes
C) 46 pairs of chromosomes
D) 46 chromosomes
E) 2n chromosomes
Answer: B
Spermatogenesis produces:
Spermatogenesis produces:
A) four spermatogonia
B) four spermatids
C) two sperm
D) two spermatids
E) four sperm
Answer: E
The enlarged tip of the penis is referred to as the:
The enlarged tip of the penis is referred to as the:
A) prepuce
B) glans penis
C) shaft
D) spongy urethra
E) scrotum
Answer: B
The primitive stem cell of spermatogenesis, which is found on the periphery of each seminiferous tubule, is called:
The primitive stem cell of spermatogenesis, which is found on the periphery of each seminiferous tubule, is called:
A) spermatogonia
B) spermatid
C) primary spermatocyte
D) secondary spermatocyte
E) sperm
Answer: A
Spermatogenesis begins:
Spermatogenesis begins:
A) prior to birth
B) at birth
C) during puberty
D) during adulthood
E) during old age
Answer: C
Circumcision for males removes:
Circumcision for males removes:
A) glans penis
B) shaft of penis
C) scrotum
D) prepuce
E) ductus (vas) deferens
Answer: D
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